QUESTION NO: 1
Which document is the least relevant as an output deliverable from the design phase?
A. high-level design
B. site requirements specification
C. configurations
D. migration plan
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Which performance characteristic is least likely to require being addressed in the data center solution requirements?
A. server virtualization
B. desktop virtualization
C. distributed computing
D. private cloud
E. power efficiency
Answer: E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 3
Which item can be used as an alternative reconnaissance tool to the NetApp OnCommand Balance application?
A. NetIQ PlateSpin
B. VKernel vOPS
C. Microsoft Assessment and Planning Toolkit
D. VMware vCenter Orchestrator plug-in
E. Symantec Enterprise Security Manager
Answer: A Explanation: QUESTION NO: 4



Which design steps could be considered optional?
A. audit
B. solution sizing
C. analysis
D. deployment provision
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
Which technology differentiates a data center designed around Cisco equipment versus another vendor?
A. NPV
B. NPIV
C. VSANs
D. FCoE
Answer: C Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 6
Which two characteristics are associated with the core layer of a Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric network? (Choose two.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS �C policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS �C classification and queuing
Answer: A,D Explanation:



QUESTION NO: 7
The ANSI restriction that only 239 Fibre Channel domains are allowed per SAN fabric creates challenges for the designer working on a Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric network.
Which two approaches can the designer utilize to restrict the number of Fibre Channel domains below 239? (Choose two.)
A. Daisy chain up to 100 core Fibre Channel switches, leaving 139 domains for the network edge.
B. Assign a domain ID for each blade switch and top-of-rack access layer switch.
C. Use NPV to cause a fabric or blade switch to appear as a host to the core Fibre Channel switch.
D. Migrate to FCoE to eliminate the need for Fibre Channel domains.
E. Utilize VSANs to allow scaling well beyond 239 domain IDs.
Answer: C,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
Which three characteristics are associated with the aggregation layer of a Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric network? (Choose three.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS �C policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS �C classification and queuing
G. routing manipulation and filtering
H. aggregates end users
Answer: B,E,G Explanation: QUESTION NO: 9



Which three characteristics are associated with the access layer of a Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric network? (Choose three.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS �C policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS �C classification and queuing
G. routing manipulation and filtering
H. aggregates end users
Answer: C,F,H Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
Which protocol is best suited for connecting two data centers together?
A. LISP
B. OTV
C. FabricPath
D. vPC
Answer: B Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 11
Which statement about the Overlay Transport Virtualization protocol is true?
A. It is IP-based functionality that provides Layer 3 extension over any transport.
B. The data plane exchanges MAC reachability info.
C. The control plane protocol is IS-IS.
D. It supports FCoE.
Answer: C Explanation: QUESTION NO: 12



What is one example of a fully virtualized environment in the data center?
A. Hadoop clusters
B. VDI
C. vPC

D. VSAN
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 13
Which option is an advantage of utilizing hypervisor technology within a Cisco Unified Fabric data center environment?
A. distributed load processing
B. availability of blade versus rack-mountable servers
C. reduced power and cooling requirements
D. integrating the virtual machines into the access layer
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 14
Which option is a recommended practice when migrating from an existing data center to a new data center?
A. Assign multiple virtual servers per one high-performance server.
B. Utilize the hypervisor tools available to ensure processor compatibility.
C. Only migrate bare metal servers when transitioning from rack-mountable to blade servers.
D. Utilize FabricPath across data centers to manage the migration.
Answer: B Explanation: QUESTION NO: 15



When migrating to a Cisco Unified Fabric data center network, which transitions will you expect to see?
A. rack-mountable to blade servers
B. physical to virtual machines
C. Fibre Channel to FCoE
D. iSCSI to NAS
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 16
What are common switching protocols that are used in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. Token Ring
B. FDDI
C. Ethernet

D. MPLS
E. Frame Relay

F. APPN/APPI
Answer: C,D Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 17
What are traits of a routing protocol used in a data center? (Choose two.)
A. proprietary and secure
B. fast route convergence
C. support for ECMP
D. support for LACP
E. support for large hop limit

Answer: B,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 18
Which two technologies minimize or eliminate the need for STP in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. OTV
B. FabricPath

C. BPDU
D. vPC

E. VDC
F. MPLS
Answer: B,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
Which two FEX topologies trade deterministic bandwidth for server-link stability during FEX uplink failure? (Choose two.)
A. port channel
B. static pinning
C. virtual port channel
D. dynamic pinning
E. Equal-Cost Multipath

F. RPVST
Answer: A,C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
Which FEX topology ensures deterministic bandwidth at the expense of server-link stability during FEX uplink failure?
A. port channel

B. static pinning
C. virtual port channel
D. dynamic pinning
E. Equal-Cost Multipath

F. RPVST
Answer: B Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 21
When multicast traffic is a required design element, why is the Cisco UCS 6248UP a better choice than the Cisco UCS 6140XP?
A. Cisco UCS 6140XP does not allow multicast traffic propagation.
B. Cisco UCS 6140XP does not support IGMP snooping on uplink interfaces.
C. Cisco UCS 6248UP employs separate unicast and multicast egress queues.
D. Cisco UCS 6248UP supports PIM dense mode rendezvous points.
E. Cisco UCS 6248UP supports dynamic queue mapping of IGMP v3 requests.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 22
Which two devices require a connection to an external switch for East-West switching? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 3548
B. Cisco UCS 6248UP
C. Cisco UCS 2208XP
D. Cisco Nexus 2232PP
E. Cisco UCS 6296UP
Answer: C,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23

What is your recommendation to a customer interested in slowing power consumption in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. Consolidate servers through virtualization.
B. Convert servers from 220v to 110v.
C. Implement Cisco Unified Fabric.
D. Convert from AC to DC power distribution.
E. Stop using redundant power supplies.
Answer: A,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 24
Which three items represent data center virtualization technologies? (Choose three.)
A. VDC
B. VSAN
C. LUN
D. L2 firewall

E. GLBP
F. ECMP
Answer: A,B,C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
What technology is necessary to support vPC+?
A. MPLS
B. OTV
C. FabricPath
D. vCenter
E. RPVST

F. MST
Answer: C Explanation: QUESTION NO: 26

What is configured on an NHRP to trigger failover if an SVI goes down?

A. BPDU
B. weight
C. interface priority
D. object tracking
E. local preference
F. cost
Answer: D Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 27
Which two devices operate only at OSI Layer 2? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7010
B. Cisco Nexus 5548
C. Cisco Nexus 5596
D. Cisco Nexus 5020
E. Cisco Nexus 3016
F. Cisco Nexus 2248
Answer: D,F Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 28
What allows for STP to be disabled yet support a loop-free topology even on link or switch failure?
A. LACP
B. OTV
C. vPC
D. vPC+
E. FabricPath

Answer: E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 29
Which three options are examples of NHRP? (Choose three.)
A. OSPF

B. HSRP
C. VRRP
D. GLBP
E. OCSP
F. EIGRP
G. MPLS
Answer: B,C,D Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 30
Your customer has a PCI requirement to protect with a firewall access layer servers that process Visa transactions.
Which Cisco Firewall Services Module deployment topology will have the least impact on existing IP addressing?
A. Transparent
B. One-Arm
C. Routed
D. Inline
E. Clustered
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
Which Cisco ACE Service Module deployment topology allows direct access to the servers for administration but requires either SNAT or PBR for load-balanced HTTP traffic returning from the server?

A. Transparent
B. One-Arm
C. Routed
D. Inline
E. Asymmetric Server Normalization
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 32
Which two devices are Cisco recommended for a ToR data center design for access layer connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series
B. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series
C. Cisco Nexus 4000 Series
D. Cisco Nexus 3000 Series
E. Cisco Nexus 2000 Series
Answer: B,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 33
Which two devices would you recommend to implement at the EoR in your data center design for access layer connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series
B. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series
C. Cisco Nexus 4000 Series
D. Cisco Nexus 3000 Series
E. Cisco Nexus 2000 Series
Answer: A,B Explanation: QUESTION NO: 34



Which two devices are recommended for an MoR design that includes Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5548UP
B. Cisco Nexus 4004
C. Cisco Nexus 3064
D. Cisco Nexus 2232PP
E. Cisco Nexus 2248T
Answer: A,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 35
Which two options represent an access layer solution to virtual machine network virtualization that the network team manages just like other devices in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 1010
B. VSM
C. VEM
D. host vPC

E. MPIO
Answer: A,C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 36
Which two terms relate to the capability of a physical NIC to present virtual NICs to the operating system or hypervisor? (Choose two.)
A. VM-FEX
B. NPIV
C. Adapter-FEX

D. NIV
E. host vPC

F. NIC teaming
Answer: C,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
Which term is synonymous with offloading network I/O processing from the hypervisor to a physical switch ASIC?
A. VM-FEX
B. NPIV
C. Adapter-FEX

D. NIV
E. host vPC
F. NIC teaming
Answer: A Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 38
Which four components would you select to meet a customer requirement of up to 80 Gb/s Ethernet bandwidth to a Cisco UCS M230 M3 blade server? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco UCS 5108
B. Cisco UCS 2204XP
C. Cisco UCS 6248UP
D. Cisco UCS 5596UP
E. Cisco UCS P81E
F. Cisco UCS 2208XP
G. Cisco UCS 6110XP
H. Cisco UCS VIC 1280
Answer: A,C,F,H Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 39

Which Cisco technology would you specify to provide your client's data center with context-aware identity validation and Layer 2 port authentication?
A. Cisco Security Manager
B. Cisco NAC Profiler
C. Cisco TrustSec
D. Cisco Anti-X
E. Cisco Virtual Security Gateway
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 40
Which option configured on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series data center switches ensures the confidentiality of server data beginning at the ingress switch port?
A. Host vPC+
B. Linksec
C. MACsec
D. LACP
E. IPsec
Answer: C Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 41
What three characteristics are true regarding the Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) inventory, assessment, and reporting toolkit? (Choose three.)
A. Secure inventory via agent software on the target devices
B. Provides comprehensive data analysis
C. Identifies heterogeneous environments consisting of Windows Server, Linux, Apple iOS operating systems
D. Identifies virtualized servers running under VMware
E. Provides detailed assessment results for each migration scenario
Answer: B,D,E Explanation: QUESTION NO: 42



What is one reason to choose a Cisco UCS C-Series rack-mountable server over a Cisco UCS B-Series blade server?
A. specific application requirements, like GPU computing
B. when power and cooling are constrained
C. specific data requirements, like data protection (backup) and disaster recovery (multisite replication)
D. when the environment is high-performance computing
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 43
From a networking perspective, what is one reason to choose a Cisco UCS C-Series rack-mountable server over a Cisco UCS B-Series blade server?
A. A rack-mountable server has more PCIe buses.
B. A blade server has fewer network interfaces.
C. A rack-mountable server can support more vNICs.
D. A blade server uses virtualization to run more applications, which constrains available bandwidth.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 44
Which three facility challenges may a customer encounter while designing a data center? (Choose three.)
A. space availability
B. power capacity
C. cooling capacity
D. PCI compliance

E. application performance
Answer: A,B,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 45
A customer is designing their new data center using Cisco UCS and they want to use the VM-FEX feature. Which statement about VM-FEX is true?
A. VM-FEX is a VMware feature that allows management of the virtual network and configuration of virtual ports to be handled within Cisco UCS Manager.
B. VM-FEX is a Cisco UCS feature that allows management of the virtual network and configuration of virtual ports, which can be handled within Cisco UCS Manager.
C. VM-FEX requires additional licensing, which can be purchased through VMware.
D. VM-FEX is supported only on B200 M3 blades.
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 46
Which option should be part of network design considerations when proposing a design for Microsoft Exchange 2010 running on Cisco UCS blade servers?
A. high-availability during fabric failover
B. proper placement of server role
C. over committing CPU resources
D. additional virtual machine scalability
Answer: A Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 47
On which two operating systems is Cisco UCS Manager supported? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Windows XP

B. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5.0 or higher
C. OS X
D. VMware vSphere 4.0
E. VMware vSphere 5.0
Answer: A,B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 48
Which two customer challenges does Cisco DCNM address? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco DCNM proactively monitors the overall health of the data center network.
B. Cisco DCNM is designed to work with Cisco Fabric Manager.
C. Cisco DCNM generates alerts when it detects an issue that may negatively affect service.
D. Cisco DCNM is designed for enterprise customers only to increase network uptime.
E. Cisco DCNM Essentials Edition is capable of VM-aware monitoring, which reduces administrative overhead.
Answer: A,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 49
Which three features are part of Cisco DCNM for SAN Advanced Edition? (Choose three.)
A. federation and VSAN scoping
B. VM-aware discovery and path analysis
C. fabric performance monitoring
D. event lookup
E. VSAN zoning
Answer: A,B,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 50
Which three features are included in Cisco Prime NAM for Cisco Nexus 1010 Virtual Services Appliance? (Choose three.)

A. packet capture
B. packet decode
C. filter and error scan
D. configure virtual machine
E. configure Cisco UCS Manager
Answer: A,B,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 51
Which feature of Cisco Prime NAM for Cisco Nexus 1010 Virtual Services Appliance provides multifaceted insight into network behavior?
A. packet debug
B. troubleshoot performance
C. traffic analysis
D. API management
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 52
Which two benefits does Cisco VNMC provide? (Choose two.)
A. transparent operation management through an XML API
B. Cisco Nexus 7000 integration
C. template-based policy management
D. Cisco Nexus 5000 integration
E. disruptive administration model
Answer: A,C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 53
A flow exporter contains network layer and transport layer details for the NetFlow export packet.

Which three options must be configured in a flow exporter? (Choose three.)
A. export destination IP address
B. source interface
C. UDP port number
D. TCP port number
E. NAT port number
Answer: A,B,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 54
What represents the number of bits in an IPv6 address?
A. 32-bit dotted hex
B. 48-bit dotted hex
C. 64-bit dotted hex
D. 128-bit dotted hex
E. 160-bit dotted hex
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 55
Which technology has the benefit of significant reduction in cabling at the access layer?
A. FCoE
B. DCBX
C. FIP
D. distributed FCF
E. 802.1Qbb
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 56

Which NHRP features active and standby virtual gateways?
A. GLBP

B. VRRP
C. HSRP
D. SSO
E. NSF
Answer: A Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 57
Which access-layer device is capable of low-latency 40 Gb Ethernet switching?
A. Cisco Nexus 5596UP
B. Cisco Nexus 4000
C. Cisco Nexus 3016
D. Cisco Nexus 2232
E. Cisco Nexus 2248
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 58
Which option can be used to provide a nonproprietary method of load balancing and redundancy between the access and aggregation layers in the data center?
A. PAgP port channel
B. LACP
C. vPC
D. vPC+
E. host vPC
Answer: B Explanation: QUESTION NO: 59




Your customer has a requirement to load balance traffic to rich media servers connected to the data center access layer.
Which Cisco ACE Service Module deployment topology will yield the highest potential bandwidth to subscribers?
A. Transparent
B. One-Arm
C. Routed
D. Inline
E. Asymmetric Server Normalization
Answer: E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 60
What represents a feature to secure OSPF routing exchanges?
A. OSPF peer authentication
B. OSPF route authentication
C. OSPF process authentication
D. OSPF database exchange authentication
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 61
Which business requirement typically drives the data center design?
A. data center location
B. support for heterogeneous compute environments
C. a collapsed core and distribution layer
D. choice of a hypervisor
Answer: B Explanation:



QUESTION NO: 62
Which technology provides the least amount of input to the data center solution requirements?
A. cloud compute
B. storage
C. desktop
D. network
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 63
Which statement about Cisco VM-FEX technology is true?
A. VM-FEX collapses virtual and physical networking infrastructure into a single infrastructure that is fully aware of the virtual machine locations and networking policies.
B. VM-FEX requires a Cisco VIC CNA and supports only static vNICs and single-OS deployments.
C. VIC CNAs provide software-based switching of traffic to and from virtual machine interfaces.
D. VM-FEX eliminates the need for VMware integration and virtual machine management performed through the VMware vCenter.
E. The Cisco VICs supports up to 1024 dynamic virtual adapters and interfaces.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 64
Which option is an example of the network services that are provided at the aggregation layer of the data center network?
A. OTV
B. MPLS
C. LISP
D. ACE

Answer: D Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 65
Which Cisco product is the least likely example of an access layer switch within the data center network?
A. Cisco Nexus 1000v
B. Cisco Nexus 5500
C. Cisco Nexus 7000
D. Cisco MDS 9222i
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 66
Which web browser does Cisco UCS Manager support?
A. Microsoft Internet Explorer 6.0 or higher
B. Safari
C. Google Chrome 21.xx or higher
D. Safari 5.0
E. Mozilla Firefox 3.x or lower
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 67
Which item is a component of Cisco DCNM?
A. Cisco DCNM for SAN and Cisco DCNM for LAN
B. Cisco DCNM for Cisco UCS Manager
C. Cisco DCNM for B- and C-Series servers
D. Cisco DCNM FabricPath license

Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 68
What is the primary function of NetFlow?
A. NetFlow requires changes to the packet and provides statistics based on these packet flows.
B. NetFlow identifies packet flows for both ingress and egress IP packets and provides statistics based on these packet flows.
C. NetFlow does not use flows to provide statistics for accounting.
D. NetFlow does not use flows to provide statistics for network monitoring.
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 69
Which two match fields does Cisco NX-OS use as the defaults when you create a flow record? (Choose two.)
A. match interface input
B. match interface output
C. export destination IP address
D. TCP port number
E. export format
Answer: A,B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 70 DRAG DROP Answer:



Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 71 DRAG DROP

Answer:

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 72 DRAG DROP

Answer:


Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 73 DRAG DROP

Answer:

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 74 DRAG DROP

Answer: Explanation:



QUESTION NO: 75


While using the Microsoft Assessment and planning toolkit, please answer the following question. How many computers were identified as candidates to be virtualized on Hyper-V?

A. 1
B. 5
C. 11
D. 14

E. 22
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 76



While using the Microsoft Assessment and planning toolkit, please answer the following question.
Highest Average CPU Utilization?
A. 100%
B. 75%
C. 52%
D. 109%
E. 200%
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 77



While using the Microsoft Assessment and planning toolkit, please answer the following question.
Highest Maximum CPU Utilization?
A. 10%
B. 24%
C. 56% D. 100%


E. 138%
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 78



While using the Microsoft Assessment and planning toolkit, please answer the following question.
What is the average CPU utilization
A. 6.61%
B. 0.16%
C. 52.31%
D. 1.09%
E. 13.31%
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 79






Give the above configuration example answer the following question
What is the Server type configured in the above example?
A. B200 1.12
B. B250 M2
C. B220 M3 D B300 M3
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 80






Give the above configuration example answer the following question
What is the memory size per Host?
A. 64GB
B. 128 GB
C. 164 GB
D. 192 GB

E. 256 GB
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 81






Give the above configuration example answer the following question
What is the number of Core Processors Installed?


A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 82






Give the above configuration example answer the following question
What is the number of Host required for the above configurations?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 7
D. 11

E. 16
Answer: D Explanation: