Topic 1, Volume A
QUESTION NO: 1
In order to reassemble IP fragments into a complete IP datagram, which three IP header fields are referenced by the receiver? (Choose three.)
A. don't fragment flag
B. packet is fragmented flag
C. IP identification field
D. more fragment flag
E. number of fragments field
F. fragment offset field
Answer: C,D,F Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 2
Which VTP mode allows the Cisco Catalyst switch administrator to make changes to the VLAN configuration that only affect the local switch and are not propagated to other switches in the VTP domain?
A. transparent
B. server
C. client
D. local
E. pass-through
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 3
Which type of VPN is based on the concept of trusted group members using the GDOI key management protocol?
A. DMVPN
B. SSLVPN
C. GETVPN
D. EzVPN

E. MPLS VPN
F. FlexVPN
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 4
Based on RFC 4890, what is the ICMP type and code that should never be dropped by the firewall to allow PMTUD?
A. ICMPv6 Type 1 �C Code 0 �C no route to host
B. ICMPv6 Type 1 �C Code 1 �C communication with destination administratively prohibited
C. ICMPv6 Type 2 �C Code 0 �C packet too big
D. ICMPv6 Type 3 �C Code 1 �C fragment reassembly time exceeded
E. ICMPv6 Type 128 �C Code 0 �C echo request
F. ICMPv6 Type 129 �C Code 0 �C echo reply
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 5
A firewall rule that filters on the protocol field of an IP packet is acting on which layer of the OSI reference model?
A. network layer
B. application layer
C. transport layer
D. session layer
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 6
Which layer of the OSI model is referenced when utilizing http inspection on the Cisco ASA to filter Instant Messaging or Peer to Peer networks with the Modular Policy Framework?

A. application layer
B. presentation layer
C. network layer
D. transport layer
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 7
When a Cisco IOS Router receives a TCP packet with a TTL value less than or equal to 1, what will it do?
A. Route the packet normally
B. Drop the packet and reply with an ICMP Type 3, Code 1 (Destination Unreachable, Host Unreachable)
C. Drop the packet and reply with an ICMP Type 11, Code 0 (Time Exceeded, Hop Count Exceeded)
D. Drop the packet and reply with an ICMP Type 14, Code 0 (Timestamp Reply)
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 8
In an 802.11 WLAN, which option is the Layer 2 identifier of a basic service set, and also is typically the MAC address of the radio of the access point?
A. BSSID
B. SSID
C. VBSSID
D. MBSSID
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 9
What term describes an access point which is detected by your wireless network, but is not a trusted or managed access point?

A. rogue
B. unclassified
C. interferer
D. malicious
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
A router has four interfaces addressed as 10.1.1.1/24, 10.1.2.1/24, 10.1.3.1/24, and 10.1.4.1/24. What is the smallest summary route that can be advertised covering these four subnets?
A. 10.1.2.0/22
B. 10.1.0.0/22
C. 10.1.0.0/21
D. 10.1.0.0/16
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
Which two address translation types can map a group of private addresses to a smaller group of public addresses? (Choose two.)
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. dynamic NAT with overloading
D. PAT
E. VAT
Answer: C,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12

Which authentication mechanism is available to OSPFv3?
A. simple passwords
B. MD5
C. null
D. IKEv2
E. IPsec AH/ESP
Answer: E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
Which two IPv6 tunnel types support only point-to-point communication? (Choose two.)
A. manually configured
B. automatic 6to4
C. ISATAP
D. GRE
Answer: A,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 14
Which two EIGRP packet types are considered to be unreliable packets? (Choose two.)
A. update
B. query
C. reply
D. hello
E. acknowledgement
Answer: D,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15

Before BGP update messages may be sent, a neighbor must stabilize into which neighbor state?
A. Active
B. Idle
C. Connected
D. Established
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 16
Which three statements are correct when comparing Mobile IPv6 and Mobile IPv4 support? (Choose three.)
A. Mobile IPv6 does not require a foreign agent, but Mobile IPv4 does.
B. Mobile IPv6 supports route optimization as a fundamental part of the protocol; IPv4 requires extensions.
C. Mobile IPv6 and Mobile IPv4 use a directed broadcast approach for home agent address discovery.
D. Mobile IPv6 makes use of its own routing header; Mobile IPv4 uses only IP encapsulation.
E. Mobile IPv6 and Mobile IPv4 use ARP for neighbor discovery.
F. Mobile IPv4 has adopted the use of IPv6 ND.
Answer: A,B,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
Refer to the exhibit.


Which message could contain an authenticated initial_contact notify during IKE main mode negotiation?
A. message 3
B. message 5
C. message 1
D. none, initial_contact is sent only during quick mode
E. none, notify messages are sent only as independent message types
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 18
Which protocol does 802.1X use between the supplicant and the authenticator to authenticate users who wish to access the network?
A. SNMP
B. TACACS+
C. RADIUS
D. EAP over LAN
E. PPPoE
Answer: D Explanation: QUESTION NO: 19


Which two statements are correct regarding the AES encryption algorithm? (Choose two.)
A. It is a FIPS-approved symmetric block cipher.
B. It supports a block size of 128, 192, or 256 bits.
C. It supports a variable length block size from 16 to 448 bits.
D. It supports a cipher key size of 128, 192, or 256 bits.
E. The AES encryption algorithm is based on the presumed difficulty of factoring large integers.
Answer: A,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
What are two benefits of using IKEv2 instead of IKEv1 when deploying remote-access IPsec VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. IKEv2 supports EAP authentication methods as part of the protocol.
B. IKEv2 inherently supports NAT traversal.
C. IKEv2 messages use random message IDs.
D. The IKEv2 SA plus the IPsec SA can be established in six messages instead of nine messages.
E. All IKEv2 messages are encryption-protected.
Answer: A,B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 21
DNSSEC was designed to overcome which security limitation of DNS?
A. DNS man-in-the-middle attacks
B. DNS flood attacks
C. DNS fragmentation attacks
D. DNS hash attacks
E. DNS replay attacks
F. DNS violation attacks
Answer: A Explanation:



QUESTION NO: 22
Which three statements are true about MACsec? (Choose three.)
A. It supports GCM modes of AES and 3DES.
B. It is defined under IEEE 802.1AE.
C. It provides hop-by-hop encryption at Layer 2.
D. MACsec expects a strict order of frames to prevent anti-replay.
E. MKA is used for session and encryption key management.
F. It uses EAP PACs to distribute encryption keys.
Answer: B,C,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
Which SSL protocol takes an application message to be transmitted, fragments the data into manageable blocks, optionally compresses the data, applies a MAC, encrypts, adds a header, and transmits the resulting unit in a TCP segment?
A. SSL Handshake Protocol
B. SSL Alert Protocol
C. SSL Record Protocol
D. SSL Change CipherSpec Protocol
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 24
IPsec SAs can be applied as a security mechanism for which three options? (Choose three.)
A. Send
B. Mobile IPv6
C. site-to-site virtual interfaces
D. OSPFv3

E. CAPWAP
F. LWAPP
Answer: B,C,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
Which four options are valid EAP mechanisms to be used with WPA2? (Choose four.)
A. PEAP
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-FAST
D. EAP-TTLS
E. EAPOL
F. EAP-RADIUS
G. EAP-MD5
Answer: A,B,C,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 26
Which three statements are true about the SSH protocol? (Choose three.)
A. SSH protocol runs over TCP port 23.
B. SSH protocol provides for secure remote login and other secure network services over an insecure network.
C. Telnet is more secure than SSH for remote terminal access.
D. SSH protocol runs over UDP port 22.
E. SSH transport protocol provides for authentication, key exchange, confidentiality, and integrity.
F. SSH authentication protocol supports public key, password, host based, or none as authentication methods.
Answer: B,E,F Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27

Which two statements are true when comparing ESMTP and SMTP? (Choose two.)
A. Only SMTP inspection is provided on the Cisco ASA firewall.
B. A mail sender identifies itself as only able to support SMTP by issuing an EHLO command to the mail server.
C. ESMTP mail servers will respond to an EHLO with a list of the additional extensions they support.
D. SMTP commands must be in upper case, whereas ESMTP can be either lower or upper case.
E. ESMTP servers can identify the maximum email size they can receive by using the SIZE command.
Answer: C,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 28
How does a DHCP client request its previously used IP address in a DHCP DISCOVER packet?
A. It is included in the CIADDR field.
B. It is included as DHCP Option 50 in the OPTIONS field.
C. It is included in the YIADDR field.
D. It is the source IP address of the UDP/53 wrapper packet.
E. The client cannot request its last IP address; it is assigned automatically by the server.
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 29
Which two statements about an authoritative server in a DNS system are true? (Choose two.)
A. It indicates that it is authoritative for a name by setting the AA bit in responses.
B. It has a direct connection to one of the root name servers.
C. It has a ratio of exactly one authoritative name server per domain.
D. It cannot cache or respond to queries from domains outside its authority.
E. It has a ratio of at least one authoritative name server per domain.
Answer: A,E Explanation:



QUESTION NO: 30
Refer to the exhibit.

Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Because of a "root delay" of 0ms, this router is probably receiving its time directly from a Stratum 0 or 1 GPS reference clock.
B. This router has correctly synchronized its clock to its NTP master.
C. The NTP server is running authentication and should be trusted as a valid time source.
D. Specific local time zones have not been configured on this router.
E. This router will not act as an NTP server for requests from other devices.
Answer: B,C,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
Which three security features were introduced with the SNMPv3 protocol? (Choose three.)
A. Message integrity, which ensures that a packet has not been tampered with in-transit
B. DoS prevention, which ensures that the device cannot be impacted by SNMP buffer overflow
C. Authentication, which ensures that the message is from a valid source
D. Authorization, which allows access to certain data sections for certain authorized users
E. Digital certificates, which ensure nonrepudiation of authentications
F. Encryption of the packet to prevent it from being seen by an unauthorized source
Answer: A,C,F Explanation: QUESTION NO: 32



Which common Microsoft protocol allows Microsoft machine administration and operates over TCP port 3389?
A. remote desktop protocol
B. desktop mirroring
C. desktop shadowing
D. Tarantella remote desktop
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 33
To prevent a potential attack on a Cisco IOS router with the echo service enabled, what action should you take?
A. Disable the service with the no ip echo command.
B. Disable the service with the no echo command.
C. Disable tcp-small-servers.
D. Disable this service with a global access-list.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 34
Which query type is required for an nslookup on an IPv6 addressed host?
A. type=AAAA
B. type=ANY
C. type=PTR
D. type=NAME-IPV6
Answer: A Explanation: QUESTION NO: 35



According to OWASP guidelines, what is the recommended method to prevent cross-site request forgery?
A. Allow only POST requests.
B. Mark all cookies as HTTP only.
C. Use per-session challenge tokens in links within your web application.
D. Always use the "secure" attribute for cookies.
E. Require strong passwords.
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 36
Which option is used to collect wireless traffic passively, for the purposes of eavesdropping or information gathering?
A. network taps
B. repeater Access Points
C. wireless sniffers
D. intrusion prevention systems
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 37
Which traffic class is defined for non-business-relevant applications and receives any bandwidth that remains after QoS policies have been applied?
A. scavenger class
B. best effort
C. discard eligible
D. priority queued

Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 38
In the context of a botnet, what is true regarding a command and control server?
A. It can launch an attack using IRC or Twitter.
B. It is another name for a zombie.
C. It is used to generate a worm.
D. It sends the command to the botnets via adware.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 39
Which option is used for anti-replay prevention in a Cisco IOS IPsec implementation?
A. session token
B. one-time password
C. time stamps
D. sequence number
E. nonce
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 40
Refer to the exhibit.


What will be the default action?
A. HTTP traffic to the Facebook, Youtube, and Twitter websites will be dropped.
B. HTTP traffic to the Facebook and Youtube websites will be dropped.
C. HTTP traffic to the Youtube and Twitter websites will be dropped.
D. HTTP traffic to the Facebook and Twitter websites will be dropped.
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 41
Which Cisco ASA feature can be used to update non-compliant antivirus/antispyware definition files on an AnyConnect client?

A. dynamic access policies
B. dynamic access policies with Host Scan and advanced endpoint assessment
C. Cisco Secure Desktop
D. advanced endpoint assessment
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 42
Refer to the exhibit.

When configuring a Cisco IPS custom signature, what type of signature engine must you use to block podcast clients from accessing the network?
A. service HTTP
B. service TCP
C. string TCP
D. fixed TCP
E. service GENERIC
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 43
An attacker configures an access point to broadcast the same SSID that is used at a public hot-spot, and launches a deauthentication attack against the clients that are connected to the hot-spot, with the hope that the clients will then associate to the AP of the attacker.

In addition to the deauthentication attack, what attack has been launched?
A. man-in-the-middle
B. MAC spoofing
C. Layer 1 DoS
D. disassociation attack
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 44
Which statement best describes the concepts of rootkits and privilege escalation?
A. Rootkits propagate themselves.
B. Privilege escalation is the result of a rootkit.
C. Rootkits are a result of a privilege escalation.
D. Both of these require a TCP port to gain access.
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 45
Refer to the exhibit.


Which message of the ISAKMP exchange is failing?
A. main mode 1
B. main mode 3
C. aggressive mode 1
D. main mode 5
E. aggressive mode 2
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 46
Which multicast capability is not supported by the Cisco ASA appliance?
A. ASA configured as a rendezvous point
B. Sending multicast traffic across a VPN tunnel
C. NAT of multicast traffic
D. IGMP forwarding (stub) mode
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 47
Refer to the exhibit.


What type of attack is being mitigated on the Cisco ASA appliance?
A. HTTPS certificate man-in-the-middle attack
B. HTTP distributed denial of service attack
C. HTTP Shockwave Flash exploit
D. HTTP SQL injection attack
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 48
Which method of output queuing is supported on the Cisco ASA appliance?
A. CBWFQ
B. priority queuing
C. MDRR
D. WFQ E. custom queuing

Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 49
Which four values can be used by the Cisco IPS appliance in the risk rating calculation? (Choose four.)
A. attack severity rating
B. target value rating
C. signature fidelity rating
D. promiscuous delta
E. threat rating
F. alert rating
Answer: A,B,C,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 50
Which three authentication methods does the Cisco IBNS Flexible Authentication feature support? (Choose three.)
A. cut-through proxy
B. dot1x
C. MAB
D. SSO
E. web authentication
Answer: B,C,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 51
Troubleshooting the web authentication fallback feature on a Cisco Catalyst switch shows that clients with the 802.1X supplicant are able to authenticate, but clients without the supplicant are not able to use web authentication. Which configuration option will correct this issue?

A. switch(config)# aaa accounting auth-proxy default start-stop group radius
B. switch(config-if)# authentication host-mode multi-auth
C. switch(config-if)# webauth
D. switch(config)# ip http server
E. switch(config-if)# authentication priority webauth dot1x
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 52
Which option on the Cisco ASA appliance must be enabled when implementing botnet traffic filtering?
A. HTTP inspection
B. static entries in the botnet blacklist and whitelist
C. global ACL
D. NetFlow
E. DNS inspection and DNS snooping
Answer: E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 53
Refer to the exhibit.


Which statement about this Cisco Catalyst switch 802.1X configuration is true?
A. If an IP phone behind the switch port has an 802.1X supplicant, MAC address bypass will still be used to authenticate the IP Phone.
B. If an IP phone behind the switch port has an 802.1X supplicant, 802.1X authentication will be used to authenticate the IP phone.
C. The authentication host-mode multi-domain command enables the PC connected behind the IP phone to bypass 802.1X authentication.
D. Using the authentication host-mode multi-domain command will allow up to eight PCs connected behind the IP phone via a hub to be individually authentication using 802.1X.
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 54
Which signature engine is used to create a custom IPS signature on a Cisco IPS appliance that triggers when a vulnerable web application identified by the "/runscript.php" URI is run?
A. AIC HTTP
B. Service HTTP
C. String TCP
D. Atomic IP
E. META
F. Multi-String
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 55
The ASA can be configured to drop IPv6 headers with routing-type 0 using the MPF. Choose the correct configuration.
A. policy-map type inspect ipv6 IPv6_PMAP match header routing-type eq 0 drop log
B. policy-map type inspect icmpv6 ICMPv6_PMAP match header routing-type eq 0 drop log

C. policy-map type inspect ipv6-header HEADER_PMAP match header routing-type eq 0 drop log
D. policy-map type inspect http HEADER_PMAP match routing-header 0 drop log
E. policy-map type inspect ipv6 IPv6_PMAP match header type 0 drop log
F. policy-map type inspect ipv6-header HEADER_PMAP match header type 0 drop log
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 56
Refer to the exhibit.


With the client protected by the firewall, an HTTP connection from the client to the server on TCP port 80 will be subject to which action?

A. inspection action by the HTTP_CMAP
B. inspection action by the TCP_CMAP
C. drop action by the default class
D. inspection action by both the HTTP_CMAP and TCP_CMAP
E. pass action by the HTTP_CMAP
F. drop action due to class-map misclassification

Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 57
Refer to the exhibit.

Which route will be advertised by the Cisco ASA to its OSPF neighbors?
A. 10.39.23.0/24

B. 10.40.29.0/24
C. 10.66.42.215/32
D. 10.40.29.0/24
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 58
Which three options can be configured within the definition of a network object, as introduced in Cisco ASA version 8.3(1)? (Choose three.)
A. range of IP addresses
B. subnet of IP addresses
C. destination IP NAT translation
D. source IP NAT translation
E. source and destination FQDNs
F. port and protocol ranges
Answer: A,B,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 59
Regarding VSAs, which statement is true?
A. VSAs may be implemented on any RADIUS server.
B. VSAs are proprietary, and therefore may only be used on the RADIUS server of that vendor. For example, a Cisco VSA may only be used on a Cisco RADIUS server, such as ACS or ISE.
C. VSAs do not apply to RADIUS; they are a TACACS attribute.
D. Each VSA is defined in an RFC and is considered to be a standard.
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 60
Which four items may be checked via a Cisco NAC Agent posture assessment? (Choose four.)

A. Microsoft Windows registry keys
B. the existence of specific processes in memory
C. the UUID of an Apple iPad or iPhone
D. if a service is started on a Windows host
E. the HTTP User-Agent string of a device
F. if an Apple iPad or iPhone has been "jail-broken"
G. if an antivirus application is installed on an Apple MacBook
Answer: A,B,D,G Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 61
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement best describes the problem?
A. Context vpn1 is not inservice.
B. There is no gateway that is configured under context vpn1.
C. The config has not been properly updated for context vpn1.
D. The gateway that is configured under context vpn1 is not inservice.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 62
Which three statements are true about the transparent firewall mode in Cisco ASA? (Choose three.)

A. The firewall is not a routed hop.
B. The firewall can connect to the same Layer 3 network on its inside and outside interfaces.
C. Static routes are supported.
D. PAT and NAT are not supported.
E. Only one global address per device is supported for management.
F. SSL VPN is supported for management.
Answer: A,B,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 63
Which three statements about Cisco IOS RRI are correct? (Choose three.)
A. RRI is not supported with ipsec-profiles.
B. Routes are created from ACL entries when they are applied to a static crypto map.
C. Routes are created from source proxy IDs by the receiver with dynamic crypto maps.
D. VRF-based routes are supported.
E. RRI must be configured with DMVPN.
Answer: B,C,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 64
Which of the following describes the DHCP "starvation" attack?
A. Exhaust the address space available on the DHCP servers so that an attacker can inject their own DHCP server for malicious reasons.
B. Saturate the network with DHCP requests to prevent other network services from working.
C. Inject a DHCP server on the network for the purpose of overflowing DNS servers with bogus learned host names.
D. Send DHCP response packets for the purpose of overloading CAM tables.
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 65

Which Cisco technology protects against Spanning Tree Protocol manipulation?
A. spanning-tree protection
B. root guard and BPDU guard
C. Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding
D. MAC spoof guard
E. port security

Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 66
Refer to the exhibit.


Which two statements about this Cisco Catalyst switch configuration are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The default gateway for VLAN 200 should be attached to the FastEthernet 5/1 interface.
B. Hosts attached to the FastEthernet 5/1 interface can communicate only with hosts attached to the FastEthernet 5/4 interface.
C. Hosts attached to the FastEthernet 5/2 interface can communicate with hosts attached to the FastEthernet 5/3 interface.
D. Hosts attached to the FastEthernet 5/4 interface can communicate only with hosts attached to the FastEthernet 5/2 and FastEthernet 5/3 interfaces.
E. Interface FastEthernet 5/1 is the community port.
F. Interface FastEthernet 5/4 is the isolated port.

Answer: B,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 67
Which three configuration components are required to implement QoS policies on Cisco routers using MQC? (Choose three.)
A. class-map
B. global-policy
C. policy-map
D. service-policy
E. inspect-map
Answer: A,C,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 68
Which type of PVLAN ports can communicate among themselves and with the promiscuous port?
A. isolated
B. community
C. primary
D. secondary
E. protected
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 69
Which statement is true about the Cisco NEAT 802.1X feature?
A. The multidomain authentication feature is not supported on the authenticator switch interface.
B. It allows a Cisco Catalyst switch to act as a supplicant to another Cisco Catalyst authenticator switch.
C. The supplicant switch uses CDP to send MAC address information of the connected host to the authenticator switch.

D. It supports redundant links between the supplicant switch and the authenticator switch.
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 70
Which additional configuration component is required to implement a MACSec Key Agreement policy on user-facing Cisco Catalyst switch ports?
A. PKI
B. TACACS+
C. multi-auth host mode
D. port security
E. 802.1x
Answer: E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 71
With the Cisco FlexVPN solution, which four VPN deployments are supported? (Choose four.)
A. site-to-site IPsec tunnels?
B. dynamic spoke-to-spoke IPSec tunnels? (partial mesh)
C. remote access from software or hardware IPsec clients?
D. distributed full mesh IPsec tunnels?
E. IPsec group encryption using GDOI?
F. hub-and-spoke IPsec tunnels?
Answer: A,B,C,F Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 72
Which four techniques can you use for IP management plane security? (Choose four.)

A. Management Plane Protection
B. uRPF
C. strong passwords
D. RBAC
E. SNMP security measures
F. MD5 authentication
Answer: A,C,D,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 73
Which three statements about remotely triggered black hole filtering are true? (Choose three.)
A. It filters undesirable traffic.
B. It uses BGP or OSPF to trigger a network-wide remotely controlled response to attacks.
C. It provides a rapid-response technique that can be used in handling security-related events and incidents.
D. It requires uRPF.
Answer: A,C,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 74
Which three statements about Cisco Flexible NetFlow are true? (Choose three.)
A. The packet information used to create flows is not configurable by the user.
B. It supports IPv4 and IPv6 packet fields.
C. It tracks all fields of an IPv4 header as well as sections of the data payload.
D. It uses two types of flow cache, normal and permanent.
E. It can be a useful tool in monitoring the network for attacks.
Answer: B,C,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 75
During a computer security forensic investigation, a laptop computer is retrieved that requires content analysis and information retrieval. Which file system is on it, assuming it has the default installation of Microsoft Windows Vista operating system?

A. HSFS
B. WinFS
C. NTFS
D. FAT
E. FAT32
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 76
Which three statements about the IANA are true? (Choose three.)
A. IANA is a department that is operated by the IETF.
B. IANA oversees global IP address allocation.
C. IANA managed the root zone in the DNS.
D. IANA is administered by the ICANN.
E. IANA defines URI schemes for use on the Internet.
Answer: B,C,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 77
What does the Common Criteria (CC) standard define?
A. The current list of Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVEs)
B. The U.S standards for encryption export regulations
C. Tools to support the development of pivotal, forward-looking information system technologies
D. The international standards for evaluating trust in information systems and products
E. The international standards for privacy laws
F. The standards for establishing a security incident response system
Answer: D Explanation: QUESTION NO: 78



Which three types of information could be used during the incident response investigation phase? (Choose three.)
A. netflow data
B. SNMP alerts
C. encryption policy
D. syslog output
E. IT compliance reports
Answer: A,B,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 79
Which of the following best describes Chain of Evidence in the context of security forensics?
A. Evidence is locked down, but not necessarily authenticated.
B. Evidence is controlled and accounted for to maintain its authenticity and integrity.
C. The general whereabouts of evidence is known.
D. Someone knows where the evidence is and can say who had it if it is not logged.
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 80
Which option is a benefit of implementing RFC 2827?
A. prevents DoS from legitimate, non-hostile end systems
B. prevents disruption of special services such as Mobile IP
C. defeats DoS attacks which employ IP source address spoofing
D. restricts directed broadcasts at the ingress router
E. allows DHCP or BOOTP packets to reach the relay agents as appropriate
Answer: C Explanation: QUESTION NO: 81



Which of the following provides the features of route summarization, assignment of contiguous blocks of addresses, and combining routes for multiple classful networks into a single route?
A. classless interdomain routing
B. route summarization
C. supernetting
D. private IP addressing
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 82
Aggregate global IPv6 addresses begin with which bit pattern in the first 16-bit group?
A. 000/3
B. 001/3
C. 010/2
D. 011/2
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 83
Which layer of the OSI reference model typically deals with the physical addressing of interface cards?
A. physical layer
B. data-link layer
C. network layer
D. host layer
Answer: B Explanation: QUESTION NO: 84



Which statement best describes a key difference in IPv6 fragmentation support compared to IPv4?
A. In IPv6, IP fragmentation is no longer needed because all Internet links must have an IP MTU of 1280 bytes or greater.
B. In IPv6, PMTUD is no longer performed by the source node of an IP packet.
C. In IPv6, IP fragmentation is no longer needed since all nodes must perform PMTUD and send packets equal to or smaller than the minimum discovered path MTU.
D. In IPv6, PMTUD is no longer performed by any node since the don't fragment flag is removed from the IPv6 header.
E. In IPv6, IP fragmentation is performed only by the source node of a large packet, and not by any other devices in the data path.
Answer: E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 85
Refer to the exhibit.

It shows the format of an IPv6 Router Advertisement packet. If the Router Lifetime value is set to 0, what does that mean?
A. The router that is sending the RA is not the default router.
B. The router that is sending the RA is the default router.
C. The router that is sending the RA will never power down.
D. The router that is sending the RA is the NTP master.
E. The router that is sending the RA is a certificate authority.
F. The router that is sending the RA has its time synchronized to an NTP source.

Answer: A Explanation: QUESTION NO: 86



If a host receives a TCP packet with an SEQ number of 1234, an ACK number of 5678, and a length of 1000 bytes, what will it send in reply?
A. a TCP packet with SEQ number: 6678, and ACK number: 1234
B. a TCP packet with SEQ number: 2234, and ACK number: 5678
C. a TCP packet with SEQ number: 1234, and ACK number: 2234
D. a TCP packet with SEQ number: 5678, and ACK number 2234
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 87
A network administrator uses a LAN analyzer to troubleshoot OSPF router exchange messages sent to all OSPF routers. To which one of these MAC addresses are these messages sent?
A. 00-00-1C-EF-00-00
B. 01-00-5E-00-00-05
C. 01-00-5E-EF-00-00
D. EF-FF-FF-00-00-05
E. EF-00-00-FF-FF-FF
F. FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 88
Which option correctly describes the security enhancement added for OSPFv3?
A. The AuType field in OSPFv3 now supports the more secure SHA-1 and SHA-2 algorithms in addition to MD5.
B. The AuType field is removed from the OSPFv3 header since simple password authentication is no longer an option.
C. The Authentication field in OSPFv3 is increased from 64 bits to 128 bits to accommodate more secure authentication algorithms.

D. Both the AuType and Authentication fields are removed from the OSPF header in OSPFv3, since now it relies on the IPv6 Authentication Header (AH) and IPv6 Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) to provide integrity, authentication, and/or confidentiality.?
E. The Authentication field is removed from the OSPF header in OSPFv3, because OSPFv3 must only run inside of an authenticated IPSec tunnel.
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 89
Which IPv6 tunnel type is a standard that is defined in RFC 4214?
A. ISATAP
B. 6to4
C. GREv6
D. manually configured
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 90
What IP protocol number is used in the protocol field of an IPv4 header, when IPv4 is used to tunnel IPv6 packets?


A. 6
B. 27
C. 41
D. 47
E. 51
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 91
Which three statements are true about PIM-SM operations? (Choose three.)

A. PIM-SM supports RP configuration using static RP, Auto-RP, or BSR.
B. PIM-SM uses a shared tree that is rooted at the multicast source.
C. Different RPs can be configured for different multicast groups to increase RP scalability.
D. Candidate RPs and RP mapping agents are configured to enable Auto-RP.
E. PIM-SM uses the implicit join model.
Answer: A,C,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 92
An IPv6 multicast receiver joins an IPv6 multicast group using which mechanism?
A. IGMPv3 report
B. IGMPv3 join
C. MLD report
D. general query
E. PIM join
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 93
Which configuration implements an ingress traffic filter on a dual-stack ISR border router to prevent attacks from the outside to services such as DNSv6 and DHCPv6?
A. ! ipv6 access-list test deny ipv6 FF05::/16 any deny ipv6 any FF05::/16 ! output omitted permit ipv6 any any !
B. ! ipv6 access-list test permit ipv6 any FF05::/16 ! output omitted deny ipv6 any any !


C. !

ipv6 access-list test deny ipv6 any any eq dns deny ipv6 any any eq dhcp ! output omitted permit ipv6 any any !
D. ! ipv6 access-list test deny ipv6 any 2000::/3 ! output omitted permit ipv6 any any !
E. ! ipv6 access-list test deny ipv6 any FE80::/10 ! output omitted permit ipv6 any any !
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 94
Which two security measures are provided when you configure 802.1X on switchports that connect to corporate-controlled wireless access points? (Choose two.)
A. It prevents rogue APs from being wired into the network.
B. It provides encryption capability of data traffic between APs and controllers.
C. It prevents rogue clients from accessing the wired network.
D. It ensures that 802.1x requirements for wired PCs can no longer be bypassed by disconnecting the AP and connecting a PC in its place.
Answer: A,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 95
Which option explains the passive scan technique that is used by wireless clients to discover available wireless networks?

A. listening for access point beacons that contain available wireless networks
B. sending a null probe request
C. sending a null association request
D. listening for access point probe response frames that contain available wireless networks
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 96
Which protocol can be used to encrypt traffic sent over a GRE tunnel?
A. SSL
B. SSH
C. IPsec


D. DH
E. TLS
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 97
Which three options are security measures that are defined for Mobile IPv6? (Choose three.)
A. IPsec SAs are used for binding updates and acknowledgements.
B. The use of IKEv1 or IKEv2 is mandatory for connections between the home agent and mobile node.
C. Mobile nodes and the home agents must support ESP in transport mode with non-NULL payload authentication.
D. Mobile IPv6 control messages are protected by SHA-2.
E. IPsec SAs are used to protect dynamic home agent address discovery.
F. IPsec SAs can be used to protect mobile prefix solicitations and advertisements.
Answer: A,C,F Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 98

Which three statements are true about DES? (Choose three.)
A. A 56-bit key is used to encrypt 56-bit blocks of plaintext.
B. A 56-bit key is used to encrypt 64-bit blocks of plaintext.
C. Each block of plaintext is processed through 16 rounds of identical operations.
D. Each block of plaintext is processed through 64 rounds of identical operations.
E. ECB, CBC, and CBF are modes of DES.
F. Each Block of plaintext is processed through 8 rounds of identical operations.
G. CTR, CBC, and OFB are modes of DES.
Answer: B,C,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 99
Comparing and contrasting IKEv1 and IKEv2, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. IKEv2 adds EAP as a method of authentication for clients; IKEv1 does not use EAP.
B. IKEv1 and IKEv2 endpoints indicate support for NAT-T via the vendor_ID payload.
C. IKEv2 and IKEv1 always ensure protection of the identities of the peers during the negotiation process.
D. IKEv2 provides user authentication via the IKE_AUTH exchange; IKEv1 uses the XAUTH exchange.
E. IKEv1 and IKEv2 both use INITIAL_CONTACT to synchronize SAs.
F. IKEv1 supports config mode via the SET/ACK and REQUEST/RESPONSE methods; IKEv2 supports only REQUEST/RESPONSE.
Answer: A,D,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 100
Which three statements about GDOI are true? (Choose three.)
A. GDOI uses TCP port 848.
B. The GROUPKEY_PULL exchange is protected by an IKE phase 1 exchange.
C. The KEK protects the GROUPKEY_PUSH message.
D. The TEK is used to encrypt and decrypt data traffic.
E. GDOI does not support PFS.

Answer: B,C,D Explanation:
Topic 2, Volume B

QUESTION NO: 101
Which three nonproprietary EAP methods do not require the use of a client-side certificate for mutual authentication? (Choose three.)
A. LEAP
B. EAP-TLS
C. PEAP
D. EAP-TTLS
E. EAP-FAST
Answer: C,D,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 102
When you compare WEP to WPA (not WPA2), which three protections are gained? (Choose three.)
A. a message integrity check
B. AES-based encryption
C. avoidance of weak Initialization vectors
D. longer RC4 keys
E. a rekeying mechanism
Answer: A,C,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 103
Which option shows the correct sequence of the DHCP packets that are involved in IP address assignment between the DHCP client and the server?
A. REQUEST, OFFER, ACK

B. DISCOVER, OFFER, REQUEST, ACK
C. REQUEST, ASSIGN, ACK
D. DISCOVER, ASSIGN, ACK
E. REQUEST, DISCOVER, OFFER, ACK
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 104
Which common FTP client command transmits a direct, byte-for-byte copy of a file?
A. ascii
B. binary
C. hash
D. quote
E. glob
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 105
Which option is a desktop sharing application, used across a variety of platforms, with default TCP ports 5800/5801 and 5900/5901?
A. X Windows
B. remote desktop protocol
C. VNC
D. desktop proxy
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 106
Which two of the following provide protect against man-in-the-middle attacks? (Choose two.)

A. TCP initial sequence number randomization?
B. TCP sliding-window checking
C. Network Address Translation
D. IPsec VPNs
E. Secure Sockets Layer
Answer: D,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 107
An exploit that involves connecting to a specific TCP port and gaining access to an administrative command prompt is an example of which type of attack?
A. botnet
B. Trojan horse
C. privilege escalation
D. DoS
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 108
Refer to the exhibit.


Which statement is true?
A. This packet decoder is using relative TCP sequence numbering?.
B. This TCP client is proposing the use of TCP window scaling?.
C. This packet represents an active FTP data session?.
D. This packet contains no TCP payload.
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 109
When configuring an Infrastructure ACL (iACL) to protect the IPv6 infrastructure of an enterprise network, where should the iACL be applied??
A. all infrastructure devices in both the inbound and outbound direction
B. all infrastructure devices in the inbound direction
C. all infrastructure devices in the outbound direction
D. all parameter devices in both the inbound and outbound direction
E. all parameter devices in the inbound direction
F. all parameter devices in the outbound direction
Answer: E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 110
What feature on the Cisco ASA is used to check for the presence of an up-to-date antivirus vendor on an AnyConnect client?
A. Dynamic Access Policies with no additional options
B. Dynamic Access Policies with Host Scan enabled
C. advanced endpoint assessment
D. LDAP attribute maps obtained from Antivirus vendor
Answer: B Explanation: QUESTION NO: 111



What type of attack consists of injecting traffic that is marked with the DSCP value of EF into the network?
A. brute-force attack
B. QoS marking attack
C. DHCP starvation attack
D. SYN flood attack
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 112
Which statement is true regarding Cisco ASA operations using software versions 8.3 and later?
A. The global access list is matched first before the interface access lists.
B. Both the interface and global access lists can be applied in the input or output direction.
C. When creating an access list entry using the Cisco ASDM Add Access Rule window, choosing "global" as the interface will apply the access list entry globally.
D. NAT control is enabled by default.
E. The static CLI command is used to configure static NAT translation rules.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 113
Which three multicast features are supported on the Cisco ASA? (Choose three.)
A. PIM sparse mode?
B. IGMP forwarding?
C. Auto-RP
D. NAT of multicast traffic?
Answer: A,B,D Explanation: QUESTION NO: 114



Which three configuration tasks are required for VPN clustering of AnyConnect clients that are connecting to an FQDN on the Cisco ASA?? (Choose three.)
A. The redirect-fqdn command must be entered under the vpn load-balancing sub-configuration.
B. Each ASA in the VPN cluster must be able to resolve the IP of all DNS hostnames that are used in the cluster?.
C. The identification and CA certificates for the master FQDN hostname must be imported into each VPN cluster-member device?.
D. The remote-access IP pools must be configured the same on each VPN cluster-member interface.
Answer: A,B,C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 115
Which three statements are true about objects and object groups on a Cisco ASA appliance that is running Software Version 8.4 or later? (Choose three.)
A. TCP, UDP, ICMP, and ICMPv6 are supported service object protocol types.
B. IPv6 object nesting is supported.
C. Network objects support IPv4 and IPv6 addresses.
D. Objects are not supported in transparent mode.
E. Objects are supported in single- and multiple-context firewall modes.
Answer: A,C,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 116
Which command is used to replicate HTTP connections from the Active to the Standby Cisco ASA appliance in failover?
A. monitor-interface http
B. failover link fover replicate http
C. failover replication http
D. interface fover replicate http standby
E. No command is needed, as this is the default behavior.

Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 117
policy-map type inspect ipv6 IPv6-map match header routing-type range 0 255 drop class-map outside-class match any policy-map outside-policy class outside-class inspect ipv6 IPv6-map service-policy outside-policy interface outside
Refer to the exhibit.


Given the Cisco ASA configuration above, which commands need to be added in order for the Cisco ASA appliance to deny all IPv6 packets with more than three extension headers?
A. policy-map type inspect ipv6 IPv6-map match ipv6 header count > 3
B. policy-map outside-policy class outside-class inspect ipv6 header count gt 3
C. class-map outside-class match ipv6 header count greater 3
D. policy-map type inspect ipv6 IPv6-map match header count gt 3 drop
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 118

Which C3PL configuration component is used to tune the inspection timers such as setting the tcp idle-time and tcp synwait-time on the Cisco ZBFW?
A. class-map type inspect
B. parameter-map type inspect
C. service-policy type inspect
D. policy-map type inspect tcp
E. inspect-map type tcp
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 119
Which three NAT types support bidirectional traffic initiation? (Choose three.)
A. static NAT
B. NAT exemption
C. policy NAT with nat/global
D. static PAT
E. identity NAT
Answer: A,B,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 120
Which IPS module can be installed on the Cisco ASA 5520 appliance?
A. IPS-AIM
B. AIP-SSM
C. AIP-SSC
D. NME-IPS-K9
E. IDSM-2
Answer: B Explanation: QUESTION NO: 121



Which two options best describe the authorization process as it relates to network access? (Choose two.)
A. the process of identifying the validity of a certificate, and validating specific fields in the certificate against an identity store
B. the process of providing network access to the end user
C. applying enforcement controls, such as downloadable ACLs and VLAN assignment, to the network access session of a user
D. the process of validating the provided credentials
Answer: B,C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 122
If ISE is not Layer 2 adjacent to the Wireless LAN Controller, which two options should be configured on the Wireless LAN Controller to profile wireless endpoints accurately? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the Call Station ID Type to bE. "IP Address".
B. Configure the Call Station ID Type to bE. "System MAC Address".
C. Configure the Call Station ID Type to bE. "MAC and IP Address".
D. Enable DHCP Proxy.
E. Disable DHCP Proxy.
Answer: B,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 123
Refer to the exhibit.


To configure the Cisco ASA, what should you enter in the Name field, under the Group Authentication option for the IPSec VPN client?
A. group policy name
B. crypto map name
C. isakmp policy name
D. crypto ipsec transform-set name
E. tunnel group name

Answer: E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 124
Refer to the exhibit.


On R1, encrypt counters are incrementing. On R2, packets are decrypted, but the encrypt counter is not being incremented. What is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. a routing problem on R1
B. a routing problem on R2
C. incomplete IPsec SA establishment
D. crypto engine failure on R2
E. IPsec rekeying is occurring
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 125
Which two methods are used for forwarding traffic to the Cisco ScanSafe Web Security service? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco AnyConnect VPN Client with Web Security and ScanSafe subscription
B. Cisco ISR G2 Router with SECK9 and ScanSafe subscription
C. Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance using DNAT policies to forward traffic to ScanSafe subscription servers
D. Cisco Web Security Appliance with ScanSafe subscription
Answer: B,C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 126

Which four statements about SeND for IPv6 are correct? (Choose four.)
A. It protects against rogue RAs.
B. NDP exchanges are protected by IPsec SAs and provide for anti-replay.
C. It defines secure extensions for NDP.
D. It authorizes routers to advertise certain prefixes.
E. It provides a method for secure default router election on hosts.
F. Neighbor identity protection is provided by Cryptographically Generated Addresses that are derived from a Diffie-Hellman key exchange.
G. It is facilitated by the Certification Path Request and Certification Path Response ND messages.
Answer: A,C,D,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 127
What is the recommended network MACSec policy mode for high security deployments?
A. should-secure
B. must-not-secure
C. must-secure
D. monitor-only
E. high-impact
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 128
Which three statements about NetFlow version 9 are correct? (Choose three.)
A. It is backward-compatible with versions 8 and 5.
B. Version 9 is dependent on the underlying transport; only UDP is supported.
C. A version 9 export packet consists of a packet header and flow sets.
D. Generating and maintaining valid template flow sets requires additional processing.
E. NetFlow version 9 does not access the NetFlow cache entry directly.
Answer: C,D,E Explanation: QUESTION NO: 129



Which three statements about VXLANs are true? (Choose three.)
A. It requires that IP protocol 8472 be opened to allow traffic through a firewall.
B. Layer 2 frames are encapsulated in IP, using a VXLAN ID to identify the source VM.
C. A VXLAN gateway maps VXLAN IDs to VLAN IDs.
D. IGMP join messages are sent by new VMs to determine the VXLAN multicast IP.
E. A VXLAN ID is a 32-bit value.
Answer: B,C,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 130
Which two identifiers are used by a Cisco Easy VPN Server to reference the correct group policy information for connecting a Cisco Easy VPN Client? (Choose two.)
A. IKE ID_KEY_ID
B. OU field in a certificate that is presented by a client
C. XAUTH username
D. hash of the OTP that is sent during XAUTH challenge/response
E. IKE ID_IPV4_ADDR

Answer: A,B Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 131
Which multicast routing mechanism is optimal to support many-to-many multicast applications?
A. PIM-SM
B. MOSPF
C. DVMRP
D. BIDIR-PIM
E. MSDP

Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 132
Which three statements regarding VLANs are true? (Choose three.)
A. To create a new VLAN on a Cisco Catalyst switch, the VLAN name, VLAN ID and VLAN type must all be specifically configured by the administrator.
B. A VLAN is a broadcast domain.
C. Each VLAN must have an SVI configured on the Cisco Catalyst switch for it to be operational.
D. The native VLAN is used for untagged traffic on an 802.1Q trunk.
E. VLANs can be connected across wide-area networks.
Answer: B,D,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 133
Which technology, configured on the Cisco ASA, allows Active Directory authentication credentials to be applied automatically to web forms that require authentication for clientless SSL connections?
A. one-time passwords
B. certificate authentication
C. user credentials obtained during authentication
D. Kerberos authentication
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 134
In what subnet does address 192.168.23.197/27 reside?
A. 192.168.23.0
B. 192.168.23.128
C. 192.168.23.160

D. 192.168.23.192
E. 192.168.23.196
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 135
Given the IPv4 address 10.10.100.16, which two addresses are valid IPv4-compatible IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)
A. :::A:A:64:10
B. ::10:10:100:16
C. 0:0:0:0:0:10:10:100:16
D. 0:0:10:10:100:16:0:0:0
Answer: B,C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 136
What is the size of a point-to-point GRE header, and what is the protocol number at the IP layer?
A. 8 bytes, and protocol number 74
B. 4 bytes, and protocol number 47
C. 2 bytes, and protocol number 71
D. 24 bytes, and protocol number 1
E. 8 bytes, and protocol number 47
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 137
Refer to the exhibit.


Which three fields of the IP header labeled can be used in a spoofing attack? (Choose one.)
A. 6, 7, 11
B. 6, 11, 12
C. 3, 11, 12
D. 4, 7, 11
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 138
When implementing WLAN security, what are three benefits of using the TKIP instead of WEP? (Choose three.)
A. TKIP uses an advanced encryption scheme based on AES.
B. TKIP provides authentication and integrity checking using CBC-MAC.
C. TKIP provides per-packet keying and a rekeying mechanism.
D. TKIP provides message integrity check.
E. TKIP reduces WEP vulnerabilities by using a different hardware encryption chipset.
F. TKIP uses a 48-bit initialization vector.

Answer: C,D,F Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 139
Which two statements about SHA are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Five 32-bit variables are applied to the message to produce the 160-bit hash.
B. The message is split into 64-bit blocks for processing.
C. The message is split into 512-bit blocks for processing.
D. SHA-2 and MD5 both consist of four rounds of processing.
Answer: A,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 140
Which three statements about IKEv2 are correct? (Choose three.)
A. INITIAL_CONTACT is used to synchronize state between peers.
B. The IKEv2 standard defines a method for fragmenting large messages.
C. The initial exchanges of IKEv2 consist of IKE_SA_INIT and IKE_AUTH.
D. Rekeying IKE and child SAs is facilitated by the IKEv2 CREATE_CHILD_SA exchange.
E. NAT-T is not supported.
F. Attribute policy push (via the configuration payload) is only supported in REQUEST/REPLY mode.
Answer: A,C,D Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 141
Which three statements about LDAP are true? (Choose three.)
A. LDAP uses UDP port 389 by default.
B. LDAP is defined in terms of ASN.1 and transmitted using BER.
C. LDAP is used for accessing X.500 directory services.

D. An LDAP directory entry is uniquely identified by its DN.
E. A secure connection via TLS is established via the UseTLS operation.
Answer: B,C,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 142
Which two EAP methods may be susceptible to offline dictionary attacks? (Choose two.)
A. EAP-MD5
B. LEAP
C. PEAP with MS-CHAPv2
D. EAP-FAST
Answer: A,B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 143
Which PKCS is invoked during IKE MM5 and MM6 when digital certificates are used as the authentication method?
A. PKCS#7
B. PKCS#10
C. PKCS#13
D. PKCS#11
E. PKCS#3
Answer: A Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 144
Which three features describe DTLS protocol? (Choose three.)
A. DTLS handshake does not support reordering or manage loss packets.

B. DTLS provides enhanced security, as compared to TLS.
C. DTLS provides block cipher encryption and decryption services.
D. DTLS is designed to prevent man-in-the-middle attacks, message tampering, and message forgery.
E. DTLS is used by application layer protocols that use UDP as a transport mechanism.
F. DTLS does not support replay detection.
Answer: C,D,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 145
Which statement regarding TFTP is not true?
A. Communication is initiated over UDP port 69.
B. Files are transferred using a secondary data channel.
C. Data is transferred using fixed-size blocks.
D. TFTP authentication information is sent in clear text.
E. TFTP is often utilized by operating system boot loader procedures.
F. The TFTP protocol is implemented by a wide variety of operating systems and network devices.
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 146
User A at Company A is trying to transfer files to Company B, using FTP. User A can connect to the FTP server at Company B correctly, but User A cannot get a directory listing or upload files. The session hangs.
What are two possible causes for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. Active FTP is being used, and the firewall at Company A is not allowing the returning data connection to be initiated from the FTP server at Company B.
B. Passive FTP is being used, and the firewall at Company A is not allowing the returning data connection to be initiated from the FTP server at Company B.
C. At Company A, active FTP is being used with a non-application aware firewall applying NAT to the source address of User A only.
D. The FTP server administrator at Company B has disallowed User A from accessing files on that server.

E. Passive FTP is being used, and the firewall at Company B is not allowing connections through to port 20 on the FTP server.
Answer: A,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 147
Which three new capabilities were added to HTTP v1.1 over HTTP v1.0? (Choose three.)
A. chunked transfer encoding
B. HTTP pipelining
C. POST method
D. HTTP cookies
E. keepalive mechanism
Answer: A,B,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 148
Which three Cisco security product features assist in preventing TCP-based man-in-the-middle attacks? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco ASA TCP initial sequence number randomization?
B. Cisco ASA TCP sliding-window conformance validation?
C. Cisco IPS TCP stream reassembly?
D. Cisco IOS TCP maximum segment size adjustment?
Answer: A,B,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 149
Which would be the best method to deploy on a Cisco ASA to detect and prevent viruses and worms?

A. deep packet inspection
B. content security via the Control Security Services Module
C. Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding
D. IP audit signatures
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 150
Which four IPv6 messages should be allowed to transit a transparent firewall? (Choose four.)
A. router solicitation with hop limit = 1
B. router advertisement with hop limit = 1
C. neighbor solicitation with hop limit = 255
D. neighbor advertisement with hop limit = 255
E. listener query with link-local source address
F. listener report with link-local source address
Answer: C,D,E,F Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 151
Refer to the exhibit of an ISAKMP debug.


Which message of the exchange is failing?
A. main mode 1
B. main mode 3
C. aggressive mode 1
D. main mode 5
E. aggressive mode 2

Answer: B Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 152
Which Cisco IPS appliance feature can automatically adjust the risk rating of IPS events based on the reputation of the attacker?
A. botnet traffic filter
B. event action rules
C. anomaly detection
D. reputation filtering
E. global correlation inspection
Answer: E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 153
Which mode of operation must be enabled on CSM to support roles such as Network Administrator, Approver, Network Operator, and Help Desk?
A. Deployment Mode
B. Activity Mode
C. Workflow Mode
D. User Roles Mode
E. Administration Mode
F. Network Mode
Answer: C Explanation: QUESTION NO: 154



Which two ISE Probes would be required to distinguish accurately the difference between an iPad and a MacBook Pro? (Choose two.)
A. DHCP or DHCPSPAN
B. SNMPTRAP
C. SNMPQUERY
D. NESSUS
E. HTTP
F. DHCP TRAP
Answer: A,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 155
Which configuration option will correctly process network authentication and authorization using both 802.1X and MAB on a single port?
A)


B)

C)


D)

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 156
Which statement regarding the routing functions of the Cisco ASA is true?
A. The translation table can override the routing table for new connections.
B. The ASA supports policy-based routing with route maps?.
C. In a failover pair of ASAs, the standby firewall establishes a peer relationship with OSPF neighbors.
D. Routes to the Null0 interface can be configured to black-hole traffic.
Answer: A Explanation: QUESTION NO: 157



Which three statements are true about the Cisco ASA object configuration below? (Choose three.)
object network vpnclients
range 10.1.100.4 10.1.100.10
object network vpnclients
nat (outside,outside) dynamic interface
A. The NAT configuration in the object specifies a PAT rule?
B. This configuration requires the command same-security-traffic inter-interface for traffic that matches this NAT rule to pass through the Cisco ASA appliance.
C. The NAT rule of this object will be placed in Section 1 (Auto-NAT) of the Cisco ASA NAT table?
D. This configuration is most likely used to provide Internet access to connected VPN clients.
E. Addresses in the range will be assigned during config-mode.
Answer: A,C,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 158
Which three attributes may be configured as part of the Common Tasks panel of an authorization profile in the Cisco ISE solution? (Choose three.)
A. VLAN
B. voice VLAN
C. dACL name
D. voice domain permission
E. SGT
Answer: A,C,D Explanation: QUESTION NO: 159



Which two statements describe the Cisco TrustSec system correctly? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco TrustSec system is a partner program, where Cisco certifies third-party security products as extensions to the secure infrastructure.
B. The Cisco TrustSec system is an approach to certifying multimedia and collaboration applications as secure.
C. The Cisco TrustSec system is an Advanced Network Access Control System that leverages enforcement intelligence in the network infrastructure.
D. The Cisco TrustSec system tests and certifies all products and product versions that make up the system as working together in a validated manner.
Answer: C,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 160
Which option is the correct definition for MAB?
A. MAB is the process of checking the mac-address-table on the local switch for the sticky address. If the mac-address of the device attempting to access the network matches the configured sticky address, it will be permitted to bypass 802.1X authentication.
B. MAB is a process where the switch will send an authentication request on behalf of the endpoint that is attempting to access the network, using the mac-address of the device as the credentials. The authentication server evaluates that MAC address against a list of devices permitted to access the network without a stronger authentication.
C. MAB is a process where the switch will check a local list of MAC addresses to identify systems that are permitted network access without using 802.1X.
D. MAB is a process where the supplicant on the endpoint is configured to send the MAC address of the endpoint as its credentials.
Answer: B Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 161
Which three statements are true about the Cisco NAC Appliance solution? (Choose three.)
A. In a Layer 3 OOB ACL deployment of the Cisco NAC Appliance, the discovery host must be configured as the untrusted IP address of the Cisco NAC Appliance Server.

B. In a Cisco NAC Appliance deployment, the discovery host must be configured on a Cisco router using the "NAC discovery-host" global configuration command.
C. In a VRF-style OOB deployment of the Cisco NAC Appliance, the discovery host may be the IP address that is on the trusted side of the Cisco NAC Appliance Server.
D. In a Layer 3 IB deployment of the Cisco NAC Appliance, the discovery host may be configured as the IP address of the Cisco NAC Appliance Manager.
Answer: A,C,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 162
Refer to the exhibit, which shows a partial output of the show command.

Which statement best describes the problem?
A. Context vpn1 is not inservice.
B. There is no gateway that is configured under context vpn1.
C. The config has not been properly updated for context vpn1.
D. The gateway that is configured under context vpn1 is not inservice.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 163
Review the exhibit.


Which three statements about the Cisco IPS sensor are true? (Choose three.)


A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
Answer: A,C,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 164
An internal DNS server requires a NAT on a Cisco IOS router that is dual-homed to separate ISPs using distinct CIDR blocks. Which NAT capability is required to allow hosts in each CIDR block to contact the DNS server via one translated address?
A. NAT overload
B. NAT extendable
C. NAT TCP load balancing
D. NAT service-type DNS
E. NAT port-to-application mapping
Answer: B Explanation:



QUESTION NO: 165
Refer to the exhibit.

Which three command sets are required to complete this IPv6 IPsec site-to-site VTI? (Choose three.)
A. interface Tunnel0 tunnel mode ipsec ipv6
B. crypto isakmp-profile match identity address ipv6 any
C. interface Tunnel0 ipv6 enable
D. ipv6 unicast-routing
E. interface Tunnel0 ipv6 enable-ipsec
Answer: A,C,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 166
Refer to the exhibit.


Which option correctly identifies the point on the exhibit where Control Plane Policing (input) is applied to incoming packets?
A. point 6
B. point 7
C. point 4
D. point 1
E. points 5 and 6
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 167
Which QoS marking is only locally significant on a Cisco router?
A. MPLS EXP
B. DSCP
C. QoS group
D. IP precedence
E. traffic class
F. flow label
Answer: C Explanation: QUESTION NO: 168

Which three control plane subinterfaces are available when implementing Cisco IOS Control Plane Protection? (Choose three.)
A. CPU
B. host
C. fast-cache
D. transit
E. CEF-exception
F. management
Answer: B,D,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 169
Management Frame Protection is available in two deployment modes, Infrastructure and Client. Which three statements describe the differences between these modes? (Choose three.)
A. Infrastructure mode appends a MIC to management frames.
B. Client mode encrypts management frames.
C. Infrastructure mode can detect and prevent common DoS attacks.
D. Client mode can detect and prevent common DoS attacks.
E. Infrastructure mode requires Cisco Compatible Extensions version 5 support on clients.
Answer: A,B,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 170
Which three object tracking options are supported by Cisco IOS policy-based routing? (Choose three.)
A. absence of an entry in the routing table
B. existence of a CDP neighbor relationship
C. existence of an entry in the routing table
D. results of an SAA operation
E. state of the line protocol of an interface
Answer: C,D,E Explanation:



QUESTION NO: 171
Which four protocols are supported by Cisco IOS Management Plane Protection? (Choose four.)
A. Blocks Extensible Exchange Protocol (BEEP)
B. Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)
C. Secure Copy Protocol (SCP)
D. Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP)
E. Secure Shell (SSH)
F. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Answer: A,B,E,F Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 172
Which four Cisco IOS features are used to implement First Hop Security in IPv6? (Choose four.)
A. IPv6 First-Hop Security Binding Table
B. IPv6 Device Tracking
C. IPv6 RA Guard
D. SeND
E. IPv6 Selective Packet Discard
F. IPv6 Source Guard
Answer: A,B,C,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 173
According ISO27001 ISMS, which of the following are mandatory documents? (Choose 4)
A. ISMS Policy
B. Corrective Action Procedure
C. IS Procedures
D. Risk Assessment Reports E. Complete Inventory of all information assets

Answer: A,B,C,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 174
Which current RFC made RFCs 2409, 2407, and 2408 obsolete?
A. RFC 4306
B. RFC 2401
C. RFC 5996
D. RFC 4301
E. RFC 1825
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 175
Which of these is a core function of the risk assessment process? (Choose one.)
A. performing regular network upgrades
B. performing network optimization
C. performing network posture validation
D. establishing network baselines
E. prioritizing network roll-outs
Answer: C Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 176
Which two answers describe provisions of the SOX Act and its international counterpart Acts? (Choose two.)
A. confidentiality and integrity of customer records and credit card information
B. accountability in the event of corporate fraud

C. financial information handled by entities such as banks, and mortgage and insurance brokers
D. assurance of the accuracy of financial records
E. US Federal government information
F. security standards that protect healthcare patient data
Answer: B,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 177
Which three statements about the Cisco IPS sensor are true? (Choose three.)
A. You cannot pair a VLAN with itself.
B. For a given sensing interface, an interface used in a VLAN pair can be a member of another inline interface pair.
C. For a given sensing interface, a VLAN can be a member of only one inline VLAN pair, however, a given VLAN can be a member of an inline VLAN pair on more than one sensing interface.
D. The order in which you specify the VLANs in a inline pair is significant.
E. A sensing interface in inline VLAN pair mode can have from 1 to 255 inline VLAN pairs.
Answer: A,C,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 178
Which two VLSM subnets, when taken as a pair, overlap? (Choose two.)
A. 10.22.21.128/26
B. 10.22.22.128/26
C. 10.22.22.0/27
D. 10.22.20.0/23
E. 10.22.16.0/22
Answer: A,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 179
The address of an inside client is translated from a private address to a public address by a NAT router for access to an outside web server. What term describes the destination address (client) after the outside web server responds, and before it hits the NAT router?

A. inside local
B. inside global
C. outside local
D. outside global
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 180
What is the ICMPv6 type and destination IPv6 address for a Neighbor Solicitation packet that is sent by a router that wants to learn about a newly introduced network device?
A. ICMP type 136 and the Solicited-Node multicast address
B. ICMP type 135 and the Broadcast address
C. ICMP type 136 and the All-Routers multicast address
D. ICMP type 135 and the All-Routers multicast address
E. ICMP type 135 and the Solicited-Node multicast address
F. ICMP type 136 and the Broadcast address
Answer: E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 181
Which three statements are true about Cryptographically Generated Addresses for IPv6? (Choose three.)
A. They prevent spoofing and stealing of existing IPv6 addresses.
B. They are derived by generating a random 128-bit IPv6 address based on the public key of the node.
C. They are used for securing neighbor discovery using SeND.
D. SHA or MD5 is used during their computation.
E. The minimum RSA key length is 512 bits.
F. The SHA-1 hash function is used during their computation.
Answer: A,C,F Explanation:



QUESTION NO: 182
Which three options are extension headers that are implemented in IPv6? (Choose three.)
A. Routing Header.
B. Generic Tunnel Header.
C. Quality of Service Header.
D. Fragment Header.
E. Encapsulating Security Payload Header.
F. Path MTU Discovery Header.
Answer: A,D,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 183
What is a key characteristic of MSTP?
A. always uses a separate STP instance per VLAN to increase efficiency
B. only supports a single STP instance for all VLANs
C. is a Cisco proprietary standard
D. several VLANs can be mapped to the same spanning-tree instance
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 184
Which spanning-tree mode supports a separate spanning-tree instance for each VLAN and also supports the 802.1w standard that has a faster convergence than 802.1D?
A. PVST+
B. PVRST+
C. PVST
D. CST
E. MST

F. RST
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 185
Which three LSA types are used by OSPFv3? (Choose three.)
A. Link LSA
B. Intra-Area Prefix LSA
C. Interarea-prefix LSA for ASBRs
D. Autonomous system external LSA
E. Internetwork LSA
Answer: A,B,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 186
Which protocol provides the same functions in IPv6 that IGMP provides in IPv4 networks?
A. ICMPv6


B. ND
C. MLD
D. TLA
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 187
After a client discovers a supportable wireless network, what is the correct sequence of operations that the client will take to join it?
A. association, then authentication
B. authentication, then association

C. probe request, then association
D. authentication, then authorization
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 188
Which authentication scheme, that is supported on the Cisco ASA, generates a unique key that is used in a single password challenge?
A. one-time passwords
B. disposable certificates
C. password management
D. Capcha web text
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 189
Which label is advertised by an LSR to inform neighboring LSRs to perform the penultimate hop popping operation?
A. 0x00
B. php
C. swap
D. push
E. imp-null
Answer: E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 190
When the RSA algorithm is used for signing a message from Alice to Bob, which statement best describes that operation?

A. Alice signs the message with her private key, and Bob verifies that signature with Alice's public key.
B. Alice signs the message with her public key, and Bob verifies that signature with Alice's private key.
C. Alice signs the message with Bob's private key, and Bob verifies that signature with his public key.
D. Alice signs the message with Bob's public key, and Bob verifies that signature with his private key.
E. Alice signs the message with her public key, and Bob verifies that signature with his private key.
F. Alice signs the message with her private key, and Bob verifies that signature with his public key.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 191
Which three statements about triple DES are true? (Choose three.)
A. For 3DES, ANSI X9.52 describes three options for the selection of the keys in a bundle, where all keys are independent.
B. A 3DES key bundle is 192 bits long.
C. A 3DES keyspace is168 bits.
D. CBC, 64-bit CFB, OFB, and CTR are modes of 3DES.
E. 3DES involves encrypting a 64-bit block of plaintext with the 3 keys of the key bundle.
Answer: B,C,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 192
Which three options correctly describe the AH protocol? (Choose three.)
A. The AH protocol encrypts the entire IP and upper layer protocols for security.
B. The AH protocol provides connectionless integrity and data origin authentication.
C. The AH protocol provides protection against replay attacks.
D. The AH protocol supports tunnel mode only.
E. The AH protocol uses IP protocol 51.
F. The AH protocol supports IPv4 only.
Answer: B,C,E Explanation: QUESTION NO: 193



Which three features are supported with ESP? (Choose three.)
A. ESP uses IP protocol 50.
B. ESP supports Layer 4 and above encryption only.
C. ESP provides confidentiality, data origin authentication, connectionless integrity, and antireplay service.
D. ESP supports tunnel or transport modes.
E. ESP has less overhead and is faster than the AH protocol.
F. ESP provides confidentiality, data origin authentication, connection-oriented integrity, and antireplay service.
Answer: A,C,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 194
Which three statements are true about TLS? (Choose three.)
A. TLS protocol uses a MAC to protect the message integrity.
B. TLS data encryption is provided by the use of asymmetric cryptography.
C. The identity of a TLS peer can be authenticated using public key or asymmetric cryptography.
D. TLS protocol is originally based on the SSL 3.0 protocol specification.
E. TLS provides support for confidentiality, authentication, and nonrepudiation.
Answer: A,C,D Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 195
Which three RADIUS protocol statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS protocol runs over TCP 1645 and 1646.
B. Network Access Server operates as a server for RADIUS.
C. RADIUS packet types for authentication include Access-Request, Access-Challenge, Access-Accept, and Access-Reject.

D. RADIUS protocol runs over UDP 1812 and 1813.
E. RADIUS packet types for authentication include Access-Request, Access-Challenge, Access-Permit, and Access-Denied.
F. RADIUS supports PPP, PAP, and CHAP as authentication methods.
Answer: C,D,F Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 196
Which three statements about OCSP are correct? (Choose three.)
A. OCSP is defined in RFC2560.
B. OCSP uses only http as a transport.
C. OCSP responders can use RSA and DSA signatures to validate that responses are from trusted entities.
D. A response indicator may be good, revoked, or unknown.
E. OCSP is an updated version SCEP.
Answer: A,C,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 197
Which three statements describe the security weaknesses of WEP? (Choose three.)
A. Key strength is weak and non-standardized.
B. The WEP ICV algorithm is not optimal for cryptographic integrity checking.
C. There is no key distribution mechanism.
D. Its key rotation mechanism is too predictable.
E. For integrity, it uses MD5, which has known weaknesses.
Answer: A,B,C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 198
In HTTPS session establishment, what does the server hello message inform the client?

A. that the server will accept only HTTPS traffic
B. which versions of SSL/TLS the server will accept
C. which ciphersuites the client may choose from
D. which ciphersuite the server has chosen to use
E. the PreMaster secret to use in generating keys
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 199
DHCPv6 is used in which IPv6 address autoconfiguration method?
A. stateful autoconfiguration
B. stateless autoconfiguration
C. EUI-64 address generation
D. cryptographically generated addresses
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 200
Refer to the exhibit.


Which statement regarding the output is true?
A. Every 1800 seconds the secondary name server will query the SOA record of the primary name server for updates.
B. If the secondary name server has an SOA record with the serial number of 10973815, it will initiate a zone transfer on the next cycle.
C. Other DNS servers will cache records from this domain for 864000 seconds (10 days) before requesting them again.
D. Email queries concerning this domain should be sent to "[email protected]".
E. Both primary and secondary name servers will clear (refresh) their caches every 7200 seconds to ensure that up-to-date information is always in use.
Answer: B Explanation:
Topic 3, Volume C

QUESTION NO: 201
Which two options represent definitions that are found in the syslog protocol (RFC 5426)? (Choose two.)
A. Syslog message transport is reliable.
B. Each syslog datagram must contain only one message.
C. IPv6 syslog receivers must be able to receive datagrams of up to 1180 bytes.
D. Syslog messages must be prioritized with an IP precedence of 7.
E. Syslog servers must use NTP for the accurate time stamping of message arrival.
Answer: B,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 202
According to RFC-5426, syslog senders must support sending syslog message datagrams to which port?
A. TCP port 514
B. UDP port 514
C. TCP port 69
D. UDP port 69
E. TCP port 161
F. UDP port 161

Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 203
Refer to the exhibit.

What service is enabled on the router for a remote attacker to obtain this information?
A. TCP small services
B. finger
C. maintenance operation protocol
D. chargen
E. Telnet
F. CEF
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 204
In an 802.11 wireless network, what would an attacker have to spoof to initiate a deauthentication attack against connected clients?
A. the BSSID of the AP where the clients are currently connected
B. the SSID of the wireless network
C. the MAC address of the target client machine
D. the broadcast address of the wireless network

Answer: A Explanation: QUESTION NO: 205



What is the commonly known name for the process of generating and gathering initialization vectors, either passively or actively, for the purpose of determining the security key of a wireless network?
A. WEP cracking
B. session hijacking
C. man-in-the-middle attacks
D. disassociation flood frames
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 206
According to RFC 4890, which four ICMPv6 types are recommended to be allowed to transit a firewall? (Choose four.)
A. Type 1 - destination unreachable
B. Type 2 - packet too big
C. Type 3 - time exceeded
D. Type 0 - echo reply
E. Type 8 - echo request
F. Type 4 - parameter problem
Answer: A,B,C,F Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 207
Which action is performed first on the Cisco ASA appliance when it receives an incoming packet on its outside interface?
A. check if the packet is permitted or denied by the inbound ACL applied to the outside interface
B. check if the packet is permitted or denied by the global ACL
C. check if the packet matches an existing connection in the connection table
D. check if the packet matches an inspection policy
E. check if the packet matches a NAT rule
F. check if the packet needs to be passed to the Cisco ASA AIP-SSM for inspections

Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 208
Refer to the exhibit.

Which three statements about the Cisco ASDM screen seen in the exhibit are true? (Choose three.)
A. This access rule is applied to all the ASA interfaces in the inbound direction.
B. The ASA administrator needs to expand the More Options tag to configure the inbound or outbound direction of the access rule.
C. The ASA administrator needs to expand the More Options tag to apply the access rule to an interface.
D. The resulting ASA CLI command from this ASDM configuration is access-list global_access line 1 extended permit ip host 1.1.1.1 host 2.2.2.1.
E. This access rule is valid only on the ASA appliance that is running software release 8.3 or later.
F. This is an outbound access rule.

Answer: A,D,E Explanation: QUESTION NO: 209



If an incoming packet from the outside interface does not match an existing connection in the connection table, which action will the Cisco ASA appliance perform next?
A. drop the packet
B. check the outside interface inbound ACL to determine if the packet is permitted or denied
C. perform NAT operations on the packet if required
D. check the MPF policy to determine if the packet should be passed to the SSM
E. perform stateful packet inspection based on the MPF policy
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 210
Refer to the exhibit.


Choose the correct description of the implementation that produced this output on the Cisco ASA appliance.
A. stateful failover using active-active for multi-context
B. stateful failover using active-standby for multi-context
C. stateful failover using active-standby for single-context
D. stateless failover using interface-level failover for multi-context
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 211
When you are configuring QoS on the Cisco ASA appliance, which four are valid traffic selection criteria? (Choose four.)
A. VPN group
B. tunnel group
C. IP precedence
D. DSCP
E. default-inspection-traffic
F. qos-group
Answer: B,C,D,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 212
Which command is required in order for the Botnet Traffic Filter on the Cisco ASA appliance to function properly?
A. dynamic-filter inspect tcp/80
B. dynamic-filter whitelist
C. inspect botnet
D. inspect dns dynamic-filter-snoop
Answer: D Explanation: QUESTION NO: 213



You have been asked to configure a Cisco ASA appliance in multiple mode with these settings:
A) You need two customer contexts, named contextA and contextB.
B) Allocate interfaces G0/0 and G0/1 to contextA.
C) Allocate interfaces G0/0 and G0/2 to contextB.
D) The physical interface name for G0/1 within contextA should be "inside".
E) All other context interfaces must be viewable via their physical interface names.
If the admin context is already defined and all interfaces are enabled, which command set will complete this configuration?
A. context contextA config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside context contextB config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 visible
B. context contexta config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside context contextb config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 visible
C. context contextA config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 invisible allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside context contextB config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 invisible allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 invisible
D. context contextA config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside context contextB config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2

E. context contextA config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside context contextB config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 visible allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 visible
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 214
Which four configuration steps are required to implement a zone-based policy firewall configuration on a Cisco IOS router? (Choose four.)
A. Create the security zones and security zone pairs.
B. Create the self zone.
C. Create the default global inspection policy.
D. Create the type inspect class maps and policy maps.
E. Assign a security level to each security zone.
F. Assign each router interface to a security zone.
G. Apply a type inspect policy map to each zone pair.
Answer: A,D,F,G Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 215
Refer to the exhibit.


The client is protected by a firewall. An IPv6 SMTP connection from the client to the server on TCP port 25 will be subject to which action?
A. pass action by the HTTP_CMAP
B. inspection action by the TCP_CMAP
C. inspection action by the SMTP_CMAP
D. drop action by the default class
E. pass action by the HTTP_CMAP
Answer: C Explanation: QUESTION NO: 216



Which Cisco IPS appliance signature engine defines events that occur in a related manner, within a sliding time interval, as components of a combined signature?
A. Service engine
B. Sweep engine
C. Multistring engine
D. Meta engine
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 217
Which three options are the types of zones that are defined for anomaly detection on the Cisco IPS Sensor? (Choose three.)
A. inside
B. outside
C. internal
D. external
E. illegal
F. baseline
Answer: C,D,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 218
Which three statements are true regarding RFC 5176 (Change of Authorization)? (Choose three.)
A. It defines a mechanism to allow a RADIUS server to initiate a communication inbound to a NAD.
B. It defines a wide variety of authorization actions, including "reauthenticate."
C. It defines the format for a Change of Authorization packet.
D. It defines a DM.

E. It specifies that TCP port 3799 be used for transport of Change of Authorization packets.
Answer: A,C,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 219
Which three statements are true regarding Security Group Tags? (Choose three.)
A. When using the Cisco ISE solution, the Security Group Tag gets defined as a separate authorization result.
B. When using the Cisco ISE solution, the Security Group Tag gets defined as part of a standard authorization profile.
C. Security Group Tags are a supported network authorization result using Cisco ACS 5.x.
D. Security Group Tags are a supported network authorization result for 802.1X, MAC Authentication Bypass, and WebAuth methods of authentication.
E. A Security Group Tag is a variable length string that is returned as an authorization result.

Answer: A,C,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 220
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the cause of the issue that is reported in this debug output?
A. The identity of the peer is not acceptable.
B. There is an esp transform mismatch.

C. There are mismatched ACLs on remote and local peers.
D. The SA lifetimes are set to 0.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 221
Refer to the exhibit,

which shows a partial configuration for the EzVPN server. Which three missing ISAKMP profile options are required to support EzVPN using DVTI? (Choose three.)
A. match identity group
B. trustpoint
C. virtual-interface
D. keyring
E. enable udp-encapsulation
F. isakmp authorization list
G. virtual-template

Answer: A,F,G Explanation: QUESTION NO: 222



Which two certificate enrollment methods can be completed without an RA and require no direct connection to a CA by the end entity? (Choose two.)
A. SCEP
B. TFTP
C. manual cut and paste
D. enrollment profile with direct HTTP
E. PKCS#12 import/export
Answer: C,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 223
Which four techniques can you use for IP data plane security? (Choose four.)
A. Control Plane Policing
B. interface ACLs
C. uRPF
D. MD5 authentication
E. FPM
F. QoS
Answer: B,C,E,F Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 224
In order to implement CGA on a Cisco IOS router for SeND, which three configuration steps are required? (Choose three.)
A. Generate an RSA key pair.
B. Define a site-wide pre-shared key.
C. Define a hash algorithm that is used to generate the CGA.
D. Generate the CGA modifier.
E. Assign a CGA link-local or globally unique address to the interface.
F. Define an encryption algorithm that is used to generate the CGA.
Answer: A,D,E Explanation:



QUESTION NO: 225
As defined by Cisco TrustSec, which EAP method is used for Network Device Admission Control authentication?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. PEAP
D. LEAP
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 226
Which three statements about the keying methods used by MACSec are true? (Choose three.)
A. Key management for host-to-switch and switch-to-switch MACSec sessions is provided by MKA.
B. A valid mode for SAP is NULL.
C. MKA is implemented as an EAPoL packet exchange.
D. SAP is enabled by default for Cisco TrustSec in manual configuration mode.
E. SAP is not supported on switch SVIs.
F. SAP is supported on SPAN destination ports.
Answer: B,C,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 227
What is the function of this command?
switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky A. It allows the switch to restrict the MAC addresses on the switch port, based on the static MAC addresses configured in the startup configuration.

B. It allows the administrator to manually configure the secured MAC addresses on the switch port.
C. It allows the switch to permanently store the secured MAC addresses in the MAC address table (CAM table).
D. It allows the switch to perform sticky learning, in which the dynamically learned MAC addresses are copied from the MAC address table (CAM table) to the startup configuration.
E. It allows the switch to dynamically learn the MAC addresses on the switch port, and the MAC addresses will be added to the running configuration
Answer: E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 228
When configuring a switchport for port security that will support multiple devices and that has already been configured for 802.1X support, which two commands need to be added? (Choose two.)
A. The 802.1X port configuration must be extended with the command dot1x multiple-host.
B. The 802.1X port configuration must be extended with the command dot1x port-security.
C. The switchport configuration needs to include the command switchport port-security.
D. The switchport configuration needs to include the port-security aging command.
E. The 802.1X port configuration needs to remain in port-control force-authorized rather than port-control auto.
Answer: A,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 229
In Cisco IOS, what is the result of the ip dns spoofing command on DNS queries that are coming from the inside and are destined to DNS servers on the outside?
A. The router will prevent DNS packets without TSIG information from passing through the router.
B. The router will act as a proxy to the DNS request and reply to the DNS request with the IP address of the interface that received the DNS query if the outside interface is down.
C. The router will take the DNS query and forward it on to the DNS server with its information in place of the client IP.
D. The router will block unknown DNS requests on both the inside and outside interfaces.

Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 230
The Wi-Fi Alliance defined two certification programs, called WPA and WPA2, which are based on the IEEE 802.11i standard. Which three statements are true about these certifications? (Choose three.)
A. WPA is based on the ratified IEEE 802.11i standard.
B. WPA2 is based on the ratified IEEE 802.11i standard.
C. WPA enhanced WEP with the introduction of TKIP.
D. WPA2 requires the support of AES-CCMP.
E. WPA2 supports only 802.1x/EAP authentication.
Answer: B,C,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 231
When you are configuring the COOP feature for GETVPN redundancy, which two steps are required to ensure the proper COOP operations between the key servers? (Choose two.)
A. Generate an exportable RSA key pair on the primary key server and export it to the secondary key server.
B. Enable dead peer detection between the primary and secondary key servers.
C. Configure HSRP between the primary and secondary key servers.
D. Enable IPC between the primary and secondary key servers.
E. Enable NTP on both the primary and secondary key servers to ensure that they are synchronized to the same clock source.
Answer: A,B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 232
A Cisco Easy VPN software client is unable to access its local LAN devices once the VPN tunnel is established. What is the best way to solve this issue?

A. The IP address that is assigned by the Cisco Easy VPN Server to the client must be on the same network as the local LAN of the client.
B. The Cisco Easy VPN Server should apply split-tunnel-policy excludespecified with a split-tunnel-list containing the local LAN addresses that are relevant to the client.
C. The Cisco Easy VPN Server must push down an interface ACL that permits the traffic to the local LAN from the client.
D. The Cisco Easy VPN Server should apply a split-tunnel-policy tunnelall policy to the client.
E. The Cisco Easy VPN client machine needs to have multiple NICs to support this.
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 233
During the establishment of an Easy VPN tunnel, when is XAUTH performed?
A. at the end of IKEv1 Phase 2
B. at the beginning of IKEv1 Phase 1
C. at the end of Phase 1 and before Phase 2 starts in IKEv1 and IKEv2
D. at the end of Phase 1 and before Phase 2 starts in IKEv1
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 234
Which three traffic conditions can be matched when configuring single rate, dual token bucket traffic policing on Cisco routers? (Choose three.)
A. conform
B. normal
C. violate
D. peak
E. exceed
F. average
Answer: A,C,E Explanation: QUESTION NO: 235



A frame relay PVC at router HQ has a CIR of 768 kb/s and the frame relay PVC at router branch office has a CIR of 384 kb/s. Which QoS mechanism can best be used to ease the data congestion and data loss due to the CIR speed mismatch?
A. traffic policing at the HQ
B. traffic policing at the branch office
C. traffic shaping at the HQ
D. traffic shaping at the branch office
E. LLQ at the HQ
F. LLQ at the branch office
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 236
Refer to the exhibit.

A customer has an IPsec tunnel that is configured between two remote offices. The customer is seeing these syslog messages on Router B:
%CRYPTO-4-PKT_REPLAY_ERR: decrypt: replay check failed connection id=x, sequence number=y

What is the most likely cause of this error?
A. The customer has an LLQ QoS policy that is configured on the WAN interface of Router A.
B. A hacker on the Internet is launching a spoofing attack.
C. Router B has an incorrectly configured IP MTU value on the WAN interface.
D. There is packet corruption in the network between Router A and Router B.
E. Router A and Router B are not synchronized to the same timer source.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 237
In ISO 27001 ISMS, which three of these certification process phases are required to collect information for ISO 27001? (Choose three.)
A. discover
B. certification audit
C. post-audit
D. observation
E. pre-audit
F. major compliance
Answer: B,C,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 238
Which three statements regarding ISO 27002 and COBIT are correct? (Choose three.)
A. COBIT and ISO 27002 both define a best practices framework for IT controls.
B. COBIT focuses on information system processes, whereas ISO 27002 focuses on the security of the information systems.
C. ISO 27002 addresses control objectives, whereas COBIT addresses information security management process requirements.
D. Compared to COBIT, ISO 27002 covers a broader area in planning, operations, delivery, support, maintenance, and IT governance.
E. Unlike COBIT, ISO 27002 is used mainly by the IT audit community to demonstrate risk mitigation and avoidance mechanisms.

Answer: A,B,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 239
The IETF is a collaborative effort by the international community of Internet professionals to improve the design, use, and management of the Internet. Which international organization charters the activity of IETF?
A. IANA
B. ISO
C. ISOC
D. RIR
E. IEC
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 240
Which RFC outlines BCP 84?
A. RFC 3704
B. RFC 2827
C. RFC 3030
D. RFC 2267
E. RFC 1918
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 241
Which two current RFCs discuss special use IP addresses that may be used as a checklist of invalid routing prefixes for IPv4 and IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)
A. RFC 5156
B. RFC 5735

C. RFC 3330
D. RFC 1918
E. RFC 2827
Answer: A,B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 242
Which four options could be flagged as potential issues by a network security risk assessment? (Choose four.)
A. router hostname and IP addressing scheme
B. router filtering rules
C. route optimization
D. database connectivity and RTT
E. weak authentication mechanisms
F. improperly configured email servers
G. potential web server exploits
Answer: B,E,F,G Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 243
Which three of these situations warrant engagement of a Security Incident Response team? (Choose three.)
A. loss of data confidentiality/integrity
B. damage to computer/network resources
C. denial of service (DoS)
D. computer or network misuse/abuse
E. pornographic blogs/websites
Answer: A,C,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 244

Which MPLS label is the signaled value to activate PHP (penultimate hop popping)?
A. 0x00
B. php
C. swap
D. push
E. imp-null
Answer: E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 245
What action will be taken by a Cisco IOS router if a TCP packet, with the DF bit set, is larger than the egress interface MTU?
A. Split the packet into two packets, so that neither packet exceeds the egress interface MTU, and forward them out.
B. Respond to the sender with an ICMP Type 3 , Code 4.
C. Respond to the sender with an ICMP Type 12, Code 2.
D. Transmit the packet unmodified.
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 246
What will the receiving router do when it receives a packet that is too large to forward, and the DF bit is not set in the IP header?
A. Drop the packet, and send the source an ICMP packet, indicating that the packet was too big to transmit.
B. Fragment the packet into segments, with all segments having the MF bit set.
C. Fragment the packet into segments, with all except the last segment having the MF bit set.
D. Fragment the packet into segments, with all except the first segment having the MF bit set.
Answer: C Explanation: QUESTION NO: 247



Identify three IPv6 extension headers? (Choose three.)
A. traffic class
B. flow label
C. routing
D. fragment
E. encapsulating security payload
Answer: C,D,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 248
Which three statements correctly describe the purpose and operation of IPv6 RS and RA messages? (Choose three.)
A. Both IPv6 RS and RA packets are ICMPv6 messages.
B. IPv6 RA messages can help host devices perform stateful or stateless address autoconfiguration; RS messages are sent by hosts to determine the addresses of routers.
C. RS and RA packets are always sent to an all-nodes multicast address.
D. RS and RA packets are used by the duplicate address detection function of IPv6.
E. IPv6 hosts learn connected router information from RA messages which may be sent in response to an RS message.
F. RS and RA packets are used for IPv6 nodes to perform address resolution that is similar to ARP in IPv4.
Answer: A,B,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 249
Which three statements are true regarding the EIGRP update message? (Choose three.)
A. Updates require an acknowledgement with an ACK message.
B. Updates can be sent to the multicast address 224.0.0.10.
C. Updates are sent as unicasts when they are retransmitted.
D. Updates always include all routes known by the router with partial updates sent in the Reply message.
E. ACKs for updates are handled by TCP mechanisms.

Answer: A,B,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 250
Which two EIGRP packet types are considered to be unreliable packets? (Choose two.)
A. update
B. query
C. reply
D. hello
E. acknowledgement
Answer: D,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 251
Which two OSPF network types support the concept of a designated router? (Choose two.)
A. broadcast
B. NBMA
C. point-to-multipoint
D. point-to-multipoint nonbroadcast
E. loopback
Answer: A,B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 252
Which IPv6 routing protocol can use IPv6 ESP and AH to provide integrity, authentication, and confidentiality services to protect the routing information exchange between the adjacent routing neighbors?
A. RIPng
B. EIGRPv6
C. BGP-4

D. IS-IS
E. OSPFv3
Answer: E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 253
Which three IPv6 tunneling methods are point-to-multipoint in nature? (Choose three.)
A. automatic 6to4
B. manually configured
C. IPv6 over IPv4 GRE
D. ISATAP
E. automatic IPv4-compatible
Answer: A,D,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 254
Which additional capability was added in IGMPv3?
A. leave group messages support
B. source filtering support
C. group-specific host membership queries support
D. IPv6 support
E. authentication support between the multicast receivers and the last hop router
Answer: B Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 255
Beacons, probe request, and association request frames are associated with which category?
A. management

B. control
C. data
D. request
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 256
Which feature can be implemented to avoid any MPLS packet loss?
A. IP TTL propagation
B. LDP IGP sync
C. label advertisement sync
D. conditional label advertisement
E. PHP
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 257
Which four types of VPN natively provide encryption of user traffic? (Choose four.)
A. MPLS
B. IPsec
C. L2TPv3
D. SSL
E. VPLS
F. AToM
G. GETVPN
H. Microsoft PPTP
Answer: B,D,G,H Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 258
Which three options are components of Mobile IPv6? (Choose three.)

A. home agent
B. correspondent node
C. mobile node
D. binding node
E. discovery probe
Answer: A,B,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 259
What are two uses of an RSA algorithm? (Choose two.)
A. Data encryption
B. Digital signature verification
C. Shared key generation
D. Message hashing
Answer: A,B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 260
What is needed to verify a digital signature that was created using an RSA algorithm?
A. public key
B. private key
C. both public and private key
D. trusted third-party certificate
Answer: A Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 261
Which algorithm is used to generate the IKEv2 session key?
A. Diffie-Hellman

B. Rivest, Shamir, and Adleman
C. Secure Hash Algorithm
D. Rivest Cipher 4
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 262
Which statement is true about IKEv2 and IKEv1?
A. IKEv2 can be configured to use EAP, but IKEv1 cannot.
B. IKEv2 can be configured to use AES encryption, but IKEv1 cannot.
C. IKEv2 can be configured to interoperate with IKEv1 on the other end.
D. IKEv2 consumes more bandwidth than IKEv1.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 263
Which statement is true about IKEv2 preshared key authentication between two peers?
A. IKEv2 allows usage of different preshared keys for local and remote authentication.
B. IKEv2 allows usage of only one preshared key.
C. IKEv2 allows usage of only one preshared key and only in hub-and-spoke topology.
D. IKEv2 does not allow usage of preshared key authentication.
Answer: A Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 264
How does 3DES use the DES algorithm to encrypt a message?
A. encrypts a message with K1, decrypts the output with K2, then encrypts it with K3
B. encrypts a message with K1, encrypts the output with K2, then encrypts it with K3
C. encrypts K1 using K2, then encrypts it using K3, then encrypts a message using the output key D. encrypts a message with K1, encrypts the output with the K2, then decrypts it with K3

Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 265
Which protocol is superseded by AES?
A. DES
B. RSA
C. RC4
D. MD5
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 266
What is the purpose of the SPI field in an IPsec packet?
A. identifies a transmission channel
B. provides anti-replay protection
C. ensures data integrity
D. contains a shared session key
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 267
Which IPsec protocol provides data integrity but no data encryption?


A. AH
B. ESP
C. SPI

D. DH Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 268
Which three statements about IKEv2 are correct? (Choose three.)
A. INITIAL_CONTACT is used to synchronize state between peers.
B. The IKEv2 standard defines a method for fragmenting large messages.
C. The initial exchanges of IKEv2 consist of IKE_SA_INIT and IKE_AUTH.
D. Rekeying IKE and child SAs is facilitated by the IKEv2 CREATE_CHILD_SA exchange.
E. NAT-T is not supported.
F. Attribute policy push (via the configuration payload) is only supported in REQUEST/REPLY mode.
Answer: A,C,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 269
What entities decrypt a transmission sent by a GDOI group member?
A. all group members
B. the key server only
C. the peer that is indicated by the key server
D. the key server and the peer that is indicated by the key server
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 270
What transport protocol and port are used by GDOI for its IKE sessions that are established between the group members and the key server?
A. UDP port 848
B. TCP port 848
C. ESP port 51

D. SSL port 443
E. UDP port 4500
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 271
What is the advantage of using the ESP protocol over the AH?
A. data confidentiality
B. data integrity verification
C. nonrepudiation
D. anti-replay protection
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 272
What applications take advantage of a DTLS protocol?
A. delay-sensitive applications, such as voice or video
B. applications that require double encryption
C. point-to-multipoint topology applications
D. applications that are unable to use TLS
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 273
What mechanism does SSL use to provide confidentiality of user data?
A. symmetric encryption
B. asymmetric encryption
C. RSA public-key encryption
D. Diffie-Hellman exchange

Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 274
What action does a RADIUS server take when it cannot authenticate the credentials of a user?
A. An Access-Reject message is sent.
B. An Access-Challenge message is sent, and the user is prompted to re-enter credentials.
C. A Reject message is sent.
D. A RADIUS start-stop message is sent via the accounting service to disconnect the session.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 275
Which transport mechanism is used between a RADIUS authenticator and a RADIUS authentication server?
A. UDP, with only the password in the Access-Request packet encrypted
B. UDP, with the whole packet body encrypted
C. TCP, with only the password in the Access-Request packet encrypted
D. EAPOL, with TLS encrypting the entire packet
E. UDP RADIUS encapsulated in the EAP mode enforced by the authentication server.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 276
Which three statements about the TACACS protocol are correct? (Choose three.)
A. TACACS+ is an IETF standard protocol.
B. TACACS+ uses TCP port 47 by default.
C. TACACS+ is considered to be more secure than the RADIUS protocol.
D. TACACS+ can support authorization and accounting while having another separate authentication solution.

E. TACACS+ only encrypts the password of the user for security.
F. TACACS+ supports per-user or per-group for authorization of router commands.
Answer: C,D,F Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 277
Which three EAP methods require a server-side certificate? (Choose three.)
A. PEAP with MS-CHAPv2
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-FAST
D. EAP-TTLS
E. EAP-GTP
Answer: A,B,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 278
Which statement is true about EAP-FAST?
A. It supports Windows single sign-on.
B. It is a proprietary protocol.
C. It requires a certificate only on the server side.
D. It does not support an LDAP database.
Answer: A Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 279
Which four attributes are identified in an X.509v3 basic certificate field? (Choose four.)
A. key usage
B. certificate serial number
C. issuer

D. subject name
E. signature algorithm identifier
F. CRL distribution points
G. subject alt name
Answer: B,C,D,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 280
What is the purpose of the OCSP protocol?
A. checks the revocation status of a digital certificate
B. submits a certificate signing request
C. verifies a signature of a digital certificate
D. protects a digital certificate with its private key
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 281
What are two reasons for a certificate to appear in a CRL? (Choose two.)
A. CA key compromise
B. cessation of operation
C. validity expiration
D. key length incompatibility
E. certification path invalidity
Answer: A,B Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 282
Which transport method is used by the IEEE 802.1X protocol?
A. EAPOL frames

B. 802.3 frames
C. UDP RADIUS datagrams
D. PPPoE frames
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 283
Which encryption mechanism is used in WEP?
A. RC4
B. RC5
C. DES
D. AES
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 284
Which three statements about Security Group Tag Exchange Protocol are true? (Choose three.)
A. SXP runs on UDP port 64999.
B. A connection is established between a "listener" and a "speaker."
C. It propagates the IP-to-SGT binding table across network devices that do not have the ability to perform SGT tagging at Layer 2 to devices that support it.
D. SXP is supported across multiple hops.
E. SXPv2 introduces connection security via TLS.
Answer: B,C,D Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 285
What does the SXP protocol exchange between peers?
A. IP to SGT binding information

B. MAC to SGT binding information
C. ingress port to SGT binding information
D. ingress switch to SGT binding information
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 286
What is a primary function of the SXP protocol?
A. to extend a TrustSec domain on switches that do not support packet tagging with SGTs
B. to map the SGT tag to VLAN information
C. to allow the SGT tagged packets to be transmitted on trunks
D. to exchange the SGT information between different TrustSec domains
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 287
In RFC 4034, DNSSEC introduced which four new resource record types? (Choose four.)
A. DNS Public Key (DNSKEY)
B. Next Secure (NSEC)
C. Resource Record Signature (RRSIG)
D. Delegation Signer (DS)
E. Top Level Domain (TLD)
F. Zone Signing Key (ZSK)
Answer: A,B,C,D Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 288
What functionality is provided by DNSSEC?
A. origin authentication of DNS data

B. data confidentiality of DNS queries and answers
C. access restriction of DNS zone transfers
D. storage of the certificate records in a DNS zone file
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 289
How are the username and password transmitted if a basic HTTP authentication is used?
A. Base64 encoded username and password
B. MD5 hash of the combined username and password
C. username in cleartext and MD5 hash of the password
D. cleartext username and password
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 290
Which field in an HTTPS server certificate is compared to a server name in the URL?
A. Common Name
B. Issuer Name
C. Organization
D. Organizational Unit
Answer: A Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 291
Which transport type is used by the DHCP protocol?
A. UDP ports 67 and 69
B. TCP ports 67 and 68
C. UDP and TCP port 67 D. UDP ports 67 and 68

Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 292
Which domain is used for a reverse lookup of IPv4 addresses?
A. in-addr.arpa
B. ip4.arpa
C. in-addr.net
D. ip4.net
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 293
Which port or ports are used for the FTP data channel in passive mode?
A. random TCP ports
B. TCP port 21 on the server side
C. TCP port 21 on the client side
D. TCP port 20 on the server side
E. TCP port 20 on the client side
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 294
Why do firewalls need to specially treat an active mode FTP session?
A. The data channel is originating from a server side.
B. The FTP client opens too many concurrent data connections.
C. The FTP server sends chunks of data that are too big.
D. The data channel is using a 7-bit transfer mode.

Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 295
Which statement is true about the TFTP protocol?
A. The client is unable to get a directory listing from the server.
B. The client is unable to create a new file on a server.
C. The client needs to log in with a username and password.
D. The client needs to log in using "anonymous" as a username and specifying an email address as a password.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 296
Which NTP stratum level means that the clock is unsynchronized?


A. 0
B. 1
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 297
Which statement is true about an NTP server?
A. It answers using UTC time.
B. It uses the local time of the server with its time zone indication.
C. It uses the local time of the server and does not indicate its time zone.
D. It answers using the time zone of the client.
Answer: A Explanation:



QUESTION NO: 298
Which statement is true about an SNMPv2 communication?
A. The whole communication is not encrypted.
B. Only the community field is encrypted.
C. Only the query packets are encrypted.
D. The whole communication is encrypted.
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 299
Refer to the exhibit.

What is this configuration designed to prevent?
A. Man in the Middle Attacks B. DNS Inspection

C. Backdoor control channels for infected hosts
D. Dynamic payload inspection
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 300
Refer to the exhibit.

What does this configuration prevent?
A. HTTP downloads of files with the ".bat" extension on all interfaces
B. HTTP downloads of files with the ".batch" extension on the inside interface
C. FTP commands of GET or PUT for files with the ".bat" extension on all interfaces
D. FTP commands of GET or PUT for files with the ".batch" extension on the inside interface
Answer: C Explanation:
Topic 4, Volume D

QUESTION NO: 301
Which four functionalities are built into the ISE? (Choose four.)

A. Profiling Server
B. Profiling Collector
C. RADIUS AAA for Device Administration
D. RADIUS AAA for Network Access
E. TACACS+ for Device Administration
F. TACACS+ for Network Access
G. Guest Lifecycle Management
Answer: A,B,D,G Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 302
Which statement is correct about the Cisco IOS Control Plane Protection feature?
A. Control Plane Protection is restricted to the IPv4 or IPv6 input path.
B. Traffic that is destined to the router with IP options will be redirected to the host control plane.
C. Disabling CEF will remove all active control-plane protection policies. Aggregate control-plane policies will continue to operate.?
D. The open-port option of a port-filtering policy allows access to all TCP/UDP based services that are configured on the router.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 303
Which Category to Protocol mapping for NBAR is correct?
A. Category: Enterprise Applications Protocol: Citrix ICA, PCAnywhere, SAP, IMAP
B. Category: Internet Protocol: FTP, HTTP, TFTP
C. Category: Network Management Protocol: ICMP, SNMP, SSH, Telnet
D. Category: Network Mail Services Protocol: MAPI, POP3, SMTP
Answer: B Explanation:
Answer:



QUESTION NO: 304
Which two options correctly describe Remote Triggered Black Hole Filtering (RFC 5635)? (Choose two.)
A. RTBH destination based filtering can drop traffic destined to a host based on triggered entries in the FIB.
B. RTBH source based filtering will drop traffic from a source destined to a host based on triggered entries in the RIB
C. Loose uRPF must be used in conjunction with RTBH destination based filtering
D. Strict uRPF must be used in conjunction with RTBH source based filtering
E. RTBH uses a discard route on the edge devices of the network and a route server to send triggered route updates
F. When setting the BGP community attribute in a route-map for RTBH use the no-export community unless BGP confederations are used then use local-as to advertise to sub-as confederations
Answer: A,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 305
A Cisco IOS router is configured as follows:
ip dns spoofing 192.168.20.1
What will the router respond with when it receives a DNS query for its own host name?
A. The router will respond with the IP address of the incoming interface.
B. The router will respond with 192.168.20.1 only if the outside interface is down.
C. The router will respond with 192.168.20.1.
D. The router will ignore the DNS query and forward it directly to the DNS server.
Answer: B Explanation: QUESTION NO: 306



Which configuration is the correct way to change a GET VPN Key Encryption Key lifetime to 10800 seconds on the key server?
A. crypto isakmp policy 1 lifetime 10800
B. crypto ipsec security-association lifetime? seconds 10800
C. crypto ipsec profile getvpn-profile set security-association lifetime seconds 10800 ! crypto gdoi group GET-Group identity number 1234 server local sa ipsec 1 profile getvpn-profile
D. ?crypto gdoi group GET-Group identity number 1234 server local rekey lifetime seconds 10800
E. crypto gdoi group GET-Group identity number 1234 server local set security-association lifetime seconds 10800
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 307
A Cisco Easy VPN software client is unable to access its local LAN devices once the VPN tunnel is established. How can this issue be resolved?
A. The IP address that is assigned by the Cisco Easy VPN Server to the client must be on the same network as the local LAN of the client.
B. The Cisco Easy VPN Server should apply split-tunnel-policy excludespecified with a split-tunnel-list containing the local LAN addresses that are relevant to the client.
C. The Cisco Easy VPN Server must push down an interface ACL that permits the traffic to the local LAN from the client.
D. The Cisco Easy VPN Server should apply a split-tunnel-policy tunnelall policy to the client.
E. The Cisco Easy VPN client machine needs to have multiple NICs to support this.

Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 308
Which three routing characteristics are relevant for DMVPN Phase 3? (Choose three.)
A. Hubs must not preserve the original IP next-hop.
B. Hubs must preserve the original IP next-hop.
C. Split-horizon must be turned off for RIP and EIGRP.
D. Spokes are only routing neighbors with hubs.
E. Spokes are routing neighbors with hubs and other spokes.
F. Hubs are routing neighbors with other hubs and must use the same routing protocol as that used on hub-spoke tunnels.
Answer: A,C,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 309
Using Cisco IOS, which two object-group options will permit networks 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 to host 192.168.5.1 port 80 and 443? (Choose 2.)
A. object-group network SOURCE range 10.1.1.0 10.1.2.255 object-group network DESTINATION host 192.168.5.1 object-group service HTTP tcp eq www tcp eq 443 tcp source gt 1024 ! access-list 101 permit object-group HTTP object-group SOURCE object-group DESTINATION
B. object-group network SOURCE
10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
10.1.2.0 0.0.0.255 object-group network DESTINATION host 192.168.5.1 object-group service HTTP tcp eq www tcp eq 443 ! ip access-list extended ACL-NEW permit object-group SOURCE object-group DESTINATION object-group HTTP

C. object-group network SOURCE
10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0
10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 object-group network DESTINATION host 192.168.5.1 object-group service HTTP tcp eq www tcp eq 443 ! ip access-list extended ACL-NEW permit object-group SOURCE object-group DESTINATION object-group HTTP
D. object-group network SOURCE
10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0
10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 object-group network DESTINATION host 192.168.5.1 object-group service HTTP tcp eq www tcp eq 443 tcp source gt 1024 ! ip access-list extended ACL-NEW permit object-group HTTP object-group SOURCE object-group DESTINATION

Answer: A,D Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 310
Which two statements about the fragmentation of IPsec packets in routers are true? (Choose two.)
A. By default, the IP packets that need encryption are first encrypted with ESP. If the resulting encrypted packet exceeds the IP MTU on the egress physical interface, then the encrypted packet is fragmented and sent out.
B. By default, the router knows the IPsec overhead to add to the packet. The router performs a lookup if the packet will exceed the egress physical interface IP MTU after encryption, then fragments the packet and encrypts the resulting IP fragments separately.
C. increases CPU utilization on the decrypting device.
D. increases CPU utilization on the encrypting device.

Answer: B,C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 311
crypto gdoi group gdoi_group identity number 1234 server local sa receive-only sa ipsec 1 profile gdoi-p match address ipv4 120
Which statement about the above configuration is true?
A. The key server instructs the DMVPN spoke to install SAs outbound only.
B. The key server instructs the GDOI group to install SAs inbound only.
C. The key server instructs the DMVPN hub to install SAs outbound only.
D. The key server instructs the GDOI spoke to install SAs inbound only.
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 312
class-map nbar_rtp match protocol rtp payload-type "0, 1, 4 - 0x10, 10001b - 10010b, 64"
The above NBAR configuration matches RTP traffic with which payload types?
A. 0, 1, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 64
B. 0, 1, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10

C. 0, 1, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 64
D. 0, 1, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 64
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 313
Which standard prescribes a risk assessment to identify whether each control is required to decrease risks and if so, to which extent it should be applied?
A. ISO 27001
B. ISO 27002
C. ISO 17799
D. HIPPA
E. ISO 9000
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 314
Refer to the exhibit.


According to this DHCP packet header, which field is populated by a DHCP relay agent with its own IP address before the DHCPDISCOVER message is forwarded to the DHCP server?
A. ciaddr
B. yiaddr
C. siaddr
D. giaddr
Answer: D Explanation: QUESTION NO: 315

Which two are valid SMTP commands, according to RFC 821? (Choose two.)
A. EHLO
B. HELO
C. RCPT
D. AUTH
Answer: B,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 316
EAP-MD5 provides one-way client authentication. The server sends the client a random challenge. The client proves its identity by hashing the challenge and its password with MD5. What is the problem with EAP-MD5?
A. EAP-MD5 is vulnerable to dictionary attack over an open medium and to spoofing because there is no server authentication.
B. EAP-MD5 communication must happen over an encrypted medium, which makes it operationally expensive.
C. EAP-MD5 is CPU-intensive on the devices.
D. EAP-MD5 not used by RADIUS protocol.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 317
error: % Invalid input detected at '^' marker.
Above error is received when generating RSA keys for SSH access on a router using the crypto key generate rsa command. What are the reasons for this error? (Choose two.)
A. The hostname must be configured before generating RSA keys.

B. The image that is used on the router does not support the crypto key generate rsa command.
C. The command has been used with incorrect syntax.
D. The crypto key generate rsa command is used to configure SSHv2, which is not supported on Cisco IOS devices.
Answer: B,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 318
crypto isakmp profile vpn1 vrf vpn1 keyring vpn1 match identity address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.255 crypto map crypmap 1 ipsec-isakmp set peer 172.16.1.1 set transform-set vpn1 set isakmp-profile vpn1 match address 101 ! interface Ethernet1/2 crypto map crypmap
Which statements apply to the above configuration? (Choose two.)
A. This configuration shows the VRF-Aware IPsec feature that is used to map the crypto ISAKMP profile to a specific VRF.
B. VRF and ISAKMP profiles are mutually exclusive, so the configuration is invalid.
C. An IPsec tunnel can be mapped to a VRF instance.
D. Peer command under the crypto map is redundant and not required.
Answer: A,C Explanation: QUESTION NO: 319



MACsec, which is defined in 802.1AE, provides MAC-layer encryption over wired networks. Which two statements about MACsec are true? (Choose two.)
A. Only links between network access devices and endpoint devices can be secured by using MACsec.
B. MACsec is designed to support communications between network devices only.
C. MACsec manages the encryption keys that the MKA protocol uses.
D. A switch that uses MACsec accepts either MACsec or non-MACsec frames, depending on the policy that is associated with the client.
Answer: A,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 320
With ASM, sources can launch attacks by sending traffic to any groups that are supported by an active RP. Such traffic might not reach a receiver but will reach at least the first-hop router in the path, as well as the RP, allowing limited attacks. However, if the attacking source knows a group to which a target receiver is listening and there are no appropriate filters in place, then the attacking source can send traffic to that group. This traffic is received as long as the attacking source is listening to the group.
Based on the above description, which type of security threat is involved?
A. DoS
B. man-in-the-middle
C. compromised key
D. data modification
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 321

Which two statements about VTP passwords are true? (Choose two)
A. The VTP password can only be configured when the switch is in Server mode.
B. The VTP password is sent in the summary advertisements..
C. The VTP password is encrypted for confidentiality using 3DES.
D. VTP is not required to be configured on all switches in the domain.
E. The VTP password is hashed to preserve authenticity using the MD5 algorithm.
F. The VTP password can only be configured when the switch is in Client mode.
Answer: B,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 322
Which option represents IPv6 address ff02::1?
A. PIM routers.
B. RIP routers.
C. all nodes on the local network.
D. NTP.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 323
Which two statements about IPv6 are true? (Choose two.)
A. Broadcast is available.
B. Routing tables are less complicated.
C. The address pool will eventually deplete.
D. Data encryption is built into the packet frame.
E. Increased NAT is required.
F. Fewer bits makes IPv6 easier to configure.
Answer: B,D Explanation: QUESTION NO: 324



Which statement describes an IPv6 benefit?
A. Broadcast is not available.
B. Routing tables are more complicated.
C. The address pool is limited.
D. Data encryption is not built into the packet frame.
E. Increased NAT is required.
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 325
Which option is representative of automatic IP addressing in IPv4?
A. 10.1.x.x
B. 172.10.1.x
C. 169.254.x.x
D. 196.245.x.x
E. 128.1.1.x
F. 127.1.x.x
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 326
Refer to the exhibit.

Which option describes the behavior of this configuration?

A. Traffic from the 30.30.0.0/16 network to the 10.10.0.0/32 network will be translated.
B. Traffic from the 30.30.0.0/32 network to the 10.10.0.0/16 network will not be translated.
C. Traffic from the 10.10.0.0/16 network to the 30.30.30.0/24 network will not be translated.
D. Traffic from the 10.10.0.0/32 network to the 30.30.30.0/16 network will be translated.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 327
Refer to the exhibit.

Which option describes the behavior of this configuration?
A. Host 10.10.10.1 will get translated as 20.20.20.1 from inside to outside.
B. Host 20.20.20.1 will be translated as 10.10.10.1 from outside to inside.
C. Host 20.20.20.1 will be translated as 10.10.10.1 from inside to outside.
D. Host 10.10.10.1 will be translated as 20.20.20.1 from outside to inside.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 328
Which ICMP message type code indicates fragment reassembly time exceeded?
A. Type 4, Code 0
B. Type 11, Code 0
C. Type 11, Code 1
D. Type 12, Code 2

Answer: C Explanation: QUESTION NO: 329



Which IPV4 header field increments every time when packet is sent from a source to a destination?
A. Flag
B. Fragment Offset
C. Identification
D. Time To Live
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 330
A device is sending a PDU of 5000 B on a link with an MTU of 1500 B. If the PDU includes 20 B of IP header, which statement is true?
A. The first three packets will have a packet payload size of 1400.
B. The last packet will have a payload size of 560.
C. The first three packets will have a packet payload size of 1480.
D. The last packet will have a payload size of 20.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 331
Which statement about VLAN is true?
A. VLAN cannot be routed.
B. VLANs 1006 through 4094 are not propagated by VTP.
C. VLAN1 is a Cisco default VLAN that can be deleted.
D. The extended-range VLANs cannot be configured in global configuration mode.
Answer: B Explanation: QUESTION NO: 332



Which two statements about OSPF authentication are true? (Choose two.)
A. OSPF authentication is required in area 0.
B. There are three types of OSPF authentication.
C. In MD5 authentication, the password is encrypted when it is sent.
D. Null authentication includes the password in clear-text.
E. Type-3 authentication is a clear-text password authentication.
F. In MD5 authentication, the password never goes across the network.
Answer: B,F Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 333
Which option describes the main purpose of EIGRP authentication?
A. to authenticate peers
B. to allow faster convergence
C. to provide redundancy
D. to avoid routing table corruption
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 334
What is the purpose of the BGP TTL security check?
A. The BGP TTL security check is used for iBGP session.
B. The BGP TTL security check protects against CPU utilization-based attacks.
C. The BGP TTL security check checks for a TTL value in packet header of less than or equal to for successful peering.
D. The BGP TTL security check authenticates a peer.
E. The BGP TTL security check protects against routing table corruption.

Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 335
Refer to the exhibit.

Which option describes the behavior of this configuration?
A. The peer session is dropped when 80 prefixes are received.
B. A warning message is displayed when 1000 prefixes are received.
C. The peer session is dropped when 800 prefixes are received.
D. An Initial warning message is displayed when 800 prefixes are received. A different message is displayed when 1000 prefixes received and the session will not be disconnected
E. An Initial warning message is displayed when 80 prefixes received. The same warning message is displayed when 1000 prefixes are received and the session will be disconnected.
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 336
Which two statements describe GRE? (Choose two.)
A. GRE acts as passenger protocol for a Layer 3 transport protocol.
B. GRE acts as a tunneling protocol and encapsulates other protocols.
C. GRE provides data confidentiality.
D. Packet MTU must be adjusted to accommodate GRE overhead.
E. GRE does not allow multicast to be sent across the tunnel.
F. The GRE tunnel interface remains down until it can see the remote tunnel end.
Answer: B,D Explanation: QUESTION NO: 337



Which two statements about NHRP are true? (Choose two.)
A. NHRP is used for broadcast multi-access networks.
B. NHRP allows NHC to dynamically learn the mapping of VPN IP to NBMA IP.
C. NHRP allows NHS to dynamically learn the mapping of VPN IP to BMA IP.
D. NHC registers with NHS.
E. Traffic between two NHCs always flows through the NHS.
F. NHRP provides Layer-2 to Layer-3 address mapping.
Answer: B,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 338
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements correctly describe the debug output that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. The request is from NHS to NNC.
B. The request is from NHC to NHS.
C. 69.1.1.2 is the local non-routable address.
D. 192.168.10.2 is the remote NBMA address.
E. 192.168.10.1 is the local VPN address.
F. This debug output represents a failed NHRP request.
Answer: B,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 339

Which two statements about the AES algorithm are true? (Choose two)
A. The AES algorithm is an asymmetric block cipher.
B. The AES algorithm operates on a 128-bits block.
C. The AES algorithm uses a fixed length-key of 128 bits.
D. The AES algorithm does not give any advantage over 3DES due to the same key length.
E. The AES algorithm consist of four functions. Three functions provide confusion-diffusion and one provides encryption.
Answer: B,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 340
Which two statements about the RC4 algorithm are true? (Choose two.)
A. The RC4 algorithm is an asymmetric key algorithm.
B. The RC4 algorithm is a symmetric key algorithm.
C. The RC4 algorithm is slower in computation than DES.
D. The RC4 algorithm is used with wireless encryption protocols.
E. The RC4 algorithm uses fixed-length keys.
Answer: B,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 341
Which three statements about the RSA algorithm are true? (Choose three.)
A. The RSA algorithm provides encryption but not authentication.
B. The RSA algorithm provides authentication but not encryption.
C. The RSA algorithm creates a pair of public-private keys that are shared by entities that perform encryption.
D. The private key is never sent across after it is generated.
E. The public key is used to decrypt the message that was encrypted by the private key.
F. The private key is used to decrypt the message that was encrypted by the public key.
Answer: C,D,F Explanation: QUESTION NO: 342



Which two statements about the MD5 Hash are true? (Choose two.)
A. Length of the hash value varies with the length of the message that is being hashed.
B. Every unique message has a unique hash value.
C. Its mathematically possible to find a pair of message that yield the same hash value.
D. MD5 always yields a different value for the same message if repeatedly hashed.
E. The hash value cannot be used to discover the message.
Answer: B,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 343
Which two statements about the SHA-1 algorithm are true? (Choose two)
A. The SHA-1 algorithm is considered secure because it always produces a unique hash for the same message.
B. The SHA-1 algorithm takes input message of any length and produces 160-bit hash output.
C. The SHA-1 algorithm is considered secure because it is possible to find a message from its hash.
D. The purpose of the SHA-1 algorithm is to provide data confidentiality.
E. The purpose of the SHA-1 algorithm is to provide data authenticity.
Answer: B,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 344
Which two statements about the DES algorithm are true? (Choose two)
A. The DES algorithm is based on asymmetric cryptography.
B. The DES algorithm is a stream cipher.
C. The DES algorithm is based on symmetric cryptography.
D. The DES algorithm encrypts a block of 128 bits.
E. The DES algorithm uses a 56-bit key.

Answer: C,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 345
Which statement about the 3DES algorithm is true?
A. The 3DES algorithm uses the same key for encryption and decryption,
B. The 3DES algorithm uses a public-private key pair with a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption.
C. The 3DES algorithm is a block cipher.
D. The 3DES algorithm uses a key length of 112 bits.
E. The 3DES algorithm is faster than DES due to the shorter key length.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 346
Which two statements about the DH group are true? (Choose two.)
A. The DH group is used to provide data authentication.
B. The DH group is negotiated in IPsec phase-1.
C. The DH group is used to provide data confidentiality.
D. The DH group is used to establish a shared key over an unsecured medium.
E. The DH group is negotiated in IPsec phase-2.
Answer: B,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 347
Which statement describes the computed authentication data in the AH protocol?
A. The computed authentication data is never sent across.
B. The computed authentication data is part of a new IP header.
C. The computed authentication data is part of the AH header.
D. The computed authentication data is part of the original IP header.

Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 348
Which statement about the AH is true?
A. AH authenticates only the data.
B. AH authenticates only the IP header.
C. AH authenticates only the TCP-UDP header.
D. AH authenticates the entire packet and any mutable fields.
E. AH authenticates the entire packet except for any mutable fields.
Answer: E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 349
Which three fields are part of the AH header? (Choose three.)
A. Source Address
B. Destination Address
C. Packet ICV
D. Protocol ID
E. Application Port
F. SPI identifying SA
G. Payload Data Type Identifier
Answer: C,F,G Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 350
Which statement about the HTTP protocol is true?
A. The request method does not include the protocol version.
B. The proxy acts as an intermediary receiving agent in the request-response chain.
C. The tunnel acts as an intermediary relay agent in the request-response chain.

D. The gateway acts as an intermediary forwarding agent in the request-response chain.
E. The success and error codes are returned in the response message by the user-agent.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 351
Which statement about SMTP is true?
A. SMTP uses UDP port 25.
B. The POP protocol is used by the SMTP client to manage stored mail.
C. The IMAP protocol is used by the SMTP client to retrieve and manage stored email.
D. The mail delivery agent in the SMTP architecture is responsible for DNS lookup.
E. SMTP uses TCP port 20.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 352
Which two statements about DHCP are true? (Choose two.)
A. DHCP uses TCP port 67.
B. DHCP uses UDP ports 67 and 68.
C. The DHCPDiscover packet has a multicast address of 239.1.1.1.
D. DHCPRequest is a broadcast message.
E. The DHCPOffer packet is sent from the DHCP server.
Answer: B,E Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 353
Which two statements about SNMP are true? (Choose two)
A. SNMP operates at Layer-6 of the OSI model.
B. NMS sends a request to the agent at TCP port 161.

C. NMS sends request to the agent from any source port.
D. NMS receives notifications from the agent on UDP 162.
E. MIB is a hierarchical representation of management data on NMS.
Answer: C,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 354
Which two statement about the DNS are true? (Choose two.)
A. The client-server architecture is based on query and response messages.
B. Query and response messages have different format.
C. In the DNS message header, the QR flag set to 1 indicates a query.
D. In the DNS header, an Opcode value of 2 represents a client status request.
E. In the DNS header, the Rcode value is set to 0 in Query message.
Answer: A,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 355
Which is an example of a network reconnaissance attack?
A. botnets
B. backdoor
C. ICMP sweep
D. firewalk
E. inverse mapping
Answer: C Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 356
Which ICMP message could be used with traceroute to map network topology?
A. Echo Reply

B. Redirect
C. Time Exceeded
D. Echo
E. Router Selection
F. Address Mask Request
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 357
Which statement about the Firewalk attack is true?
A. The firewall attack is used to discover hosts behind firewall device.
B. The firewall attack uses ICMP sweep to find expected hosts behind the firewall.
C. The firewall attack uses traceroute with a predetermined TTL value to discover hosts behind the firewall.
D. The firewall attack is used to find the vulnerability in the Cisco IOS firewall code.
E. The firewall attack uses an ICMP echo message to discover firewall misconfiguration.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 358
Which pair of ICMP messages is used in an inverse mapping attack?
A. Echo-Echo Request
B. Route Solicitation- Time Exceeded
C. Echo-Time Exceeded
D. Echo Reply-Host Unreachable
E. Echo-Host Unreachable
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 359
Which statement about a botnet attack is true?

A. The botnet attack is an attack on a firewall to disable it's filtering ability.
B. The botnet attack is a network sweeping attack to find hosts that are alive alive behind the filtering device.
C. The botnet attack is a collection of infected computers that launch automated attacks.
D. The owner of the infected computer willingly participates in automated attacks.
E. The botnet attack enhances the efficiency of the computer for effective automated attacks.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 360
Which two statements about IPS signatures are true? (Choose two.)
A. All of the built-in signatures are enabled by default.
B. Tuned signatures are built-in signatures whose parameters are adjusted.
C. Once the signature is removed from the sensing engine it cannot be restored
D. It is recommended not to retire a signature that is not being used because then it cannot be restored.
E. It is possible to define custom signatures.
Answer: B,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 361
Which two statement about Infrastructure ACLs on Cisco IOS software are true? (Choose two.)
A. Infrastructure ACLs are used to block-permit the traffic in the router forwarding path.
B. Infrastructure ACLs are used to block-permit the traffic handled by the route processor.
C. Infrastructure ACLs are used to block-permit the transit traffic.
D. Infrastructure ACLs only protect device physical management interface.
Answer: B,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 362
Which statement about the SYN flood attack is true?

A. The SYN flood attack is always directed from valid address.
B. The SYN flood attack target is to deplete server memory so that legitimate request cannot be served.
C. The SYN flood attack is meant to completely deplete the TCB SYN-Received state backlog.
D. The SYN flood attack can be launched for both UDP and TCP open ports on the server.
E. SYN-Received state backlog for TCBs is meant to protect server CPU cycles.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 363
The HTTP inspection engine has the ability to inspect traffic based on which three parameters? (Choose three.)
A. Transfer Encoding
B. Request Method
C. Header
D. Application Type
E. Header Size
F. Source Address
Answer: A,B,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 364
For which two reasons BVI is required in the Transparent Cisco IOS Firewall? (Choose two)
A. BVI is required for the inspection of IP traffic.
B. The firewall can perform routing on bridged interfaces.
C. BVI is required if routing is disabled on the firewall.
D. BVI is required if more than two interfaces are in a bridge group.
E. BVI is required for the inspection of non-IP traffic.
F. BVI can manage the device without having an interface that is configured for routing.
Answer: D,F Explanation: QUESTION NO: 365



Event Store is a component of which IPS application?
A. SensorApp
B. InterfaceApp
C. MainApp
D. NotificationApp
E. AuthenticationApp
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 366
Which statement about the Cisco Secure ACS Solution Engine TACACS+ AV pair is true?
A. AV pairs are only required to be enabled on Cisco Secure ACS for successful implementation.
B. The Cisco Secure ACS Solution Engine does not support accounting AV pairs.
C. AV pairs are only string values.
D. AV pairs are of two types: string and integer.

Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 367
Refer to the exhibit.

Which option describes the behavior of this configuration?
A. Devices that perform IEEE 802.1X should be in the MAC address database for successful authentication.

B. IEEE 802.1x devices must fail MAB to perform IEEE 802.1X authentication.
C. If 802.1X fails, the device will be assigned to the default guest VLAN.
D. The device will perform subsequent IEEE 802.1X authentication if it passed MAB authentication.
E. If the device fails IEEE 802.1X, it will start MAB again.
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 368
When is the supplicant considered to be clientless?
A. when the authentication server does not have credentials to authenticate.
B. when the authenticator is missing the dot1x guest VLAN under the port with which the supplicant is connected.
C. when the supplicant fails EAP-MD5 challenge with the authentication server.
D. when the supplicant fails to respond to EAPOL messages from the authenticator.
E. when the authenticator is missing the reauthentication timeout configuration under the port with which the supplicant is connected.
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 369
Which Cisco IOS IPS signature action denies an attacker session using the dynamic access list?
A. produce-alert
B. deny-attacker-inline
C. deny-connection-inline
D. reset-tcp-action
E. deny-session-inline
F. deny-packet-inline
Answer: C Explanation: QUESTION NO: 370



Which IPS appliance signature engine inspects IPv6 Layer 3 traffic?
A. Atomic IP
B. Meta
C. Atomic IP Advanced
D. Fixed
E. Service
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 371
When routing is configured on ASA, which statement is true?
A. If the default route is not present, then the routing table is checked.
B. If the routing table has two matching entries, the packet is dropped.
C. If routing table has two matching entries with same prefix length, the first entry is used.
D. If routing table has two matching entries with different prefix lengths, the entry with the longer prefix length is used.
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 372
Which statement about the ASA redundant interface is true?
A. It is a logical interface that combines two physical interfaces, both of which are active.
B. It can only be used for failover links.
C. By default, the first physical interface that is configured in the pair is the active interface.
D. The redundant interface uses the MAC address of the second physical interface in the pair.
Answer: C Explanation: QUESTION NO: 373



Which two pieces of information are communicated by the ASA failover link? (Choose two.)
A. unit state
B. connections State
C. routing tables
D. power status
E. MAC address exchange
Answer: A,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 374
When is a connection entry created on ASA for a packet that is received on the ingress interface?
A. When the packet is checked by the access-list.
B. When the packet reaches the ingress interface internal buffer.
C. When the packet is a SYN packet or UDP packet.
D. When a translation rule exists for the packet.
E. When the packet is subjected to inspection.
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 375
Which two statements about the multiple context mode running Version 9.x are true? (Choose two.)
A. RIP is not supported.
B. An interface cannot be shared by multiple contexts.
C. Remote access VPN is supported.
D. Only the admin and context configuration files are supported.
E. OSPFv3 is supported.
F. Multicast feature is supported
G. Site-To-Site VPN feature is supported
Answer: A,G Explanation:



QUESTION NO: 376
Which two options describe how the traffic for the shared interface is classified in ASA multi context mode? (Choose two.)
A. Traffic is classified at the source address in the packet.
B. Traffic is classified at the destination address in the packet.
C. Traffic is classified at the destination address in the context.
D. Traffic is classified by copying and sending the packet to all the contexts.
E. Traffic is classified by sending the MAC address for the shared interface.
Answer: C,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 377
Which two statements correctly describes ASA resource management in multiple context mode? (Choose two.)
A. The class sets the resource maximum limit for a context to which it belongs.
B. A resource cannot be oversubscribed or set to be unlimited in the class.
C. The resource limit can only be set as a percentage in the class and not as an absolute value.
D. Context belongs to a default class if not assigned to any other class.
E. The default class provides unlimited access for all the resources.
Answer: A,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 378
Which two statements about ASA transparent mode are true? (Choose two.)
A. Transparent mose acts as a Layer-3 firewall.
B. The inside and outside interface must be in a different subnet.
C. IP traffic will not pass unless it is permitted by an access-list.
D. ARP traffic is dropped unless it is permitted.

E. A configured route applies only to the traffic that is originated by the ASA.
F. In multiple context mode, all contexts need to be in transparent mode.
Answer: C,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 379
Which statement correctly describes a botnet filter category?
A. Unlisted addresses: The addresses are malware addresses that are not identified by the dynamic database and are hence defined statically.
B. Ambiguous addresses: In this case, the same domain name has multiple malware addresses but not all the addresses are in the dynamic database. These addresses are on the graylist.
C. Known malware addresses: These addresses are identified as blacklist addresses in the dynamic database and static list.
D. Known allowed addresses: These addresses are identified as whitelist addresses that are bad addresses but still allowed.
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 380
Refer to the exhibit.


Why does the EasyVPN session fail to establish between the client and server?
A. incomplete ISAKMP profile configuration on the server
B. incorrect IPsec phase-2 configuration on the server
C. incorrect group configuration on the client
D. ISAKMP key mismatch
E. incorrect ACL in the ISAKMP client group configuration

Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 381
Refer to the exhibit.


What is the reason for the failure of the DMVPN session between R1 and R2?
A. tunnel mode mismatch
B. IPsec phase-1 configuration is missing peer address on R2
C. IPsec phase-1 policy mismatch
D. IPsec phase-2 policy mismatch
E. incorrect tunnel source interface on R1
Answer: E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 382
Which three HTTP header fields can be classified by NBAR for request messages? (Choose three.)
A. User-Agent
B. Server
C. Referrer
D. Content-Encoding
E. Location
F. From
Answer: A,C,F Explanation:



QUESTION NO: 383
Refer to the exhibit.

Which option describes the behavior of this configuration?
A. The packet will be dropped if received on the same interface that the router would use to forward return packet.
B. The packet will be forwarded as long as it is in the routing table.
C. The packet will be forwarded if received on the same interface that the router would use to forward return packet.
D. Packet will be forwarded only if exists a default route for the return path.
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 384
Which three types of traffic are processed by CoPP configured on the device? (Choose three.)
A. tansient traffic
B. routing protocol traffic
C. IPsec traffic
D. traffic that is destined to the device interface
E. any traffic filtered by the access list
F. traffic from a management protocol such as Telnet or SNMP
Answer: B,D,F Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 385
Which statement about PVLAN setup is true?

A. The host that is connected to the community port can communicate with a host that is connected to a different community port.
B. The host that is connected to the community port cannot communicate with hosts that are connected to the promiscuous port.
C. The host that is connected to the community port cannot communicate with hosts that are connected to the isolated port.
D. The host that is connected to the community port can only communicate with hosts that are connected to the same community port.
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 386
Which statement applies to Flexible NetFlow?
A. Flexible NetFlow uses seven key fields in IP datagrams to identify the flow.
B. Flexible NetFlow uses key fields of IP datagram to identify fields from which data is captured.
C. User-defined flows can be defined in Flexible NetFlow.
D. Flexible NetFlow cannot be used for billing and accounting applications.
E. Flexible NetFlow does not have any predefined records.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 387
Which statement about Storm Control implementation on a switch is true?
A. Storm Control does not prevent disruption due to unicast traffic.
B. Storm Control is implemented as a global configuration.
C. Storm Control uses the bandwidth and rate at which a packet is received to measure the activity.
D. Storm Control uses the bandwidth and rate at which a packet is dispatched to measure the activity.
E. Storm Control is enabled by default.
Answer: C Explanation:



QUESTION NO: 388
Refer to the exhibit.

If SW4 is sending superior BPDUs, where should the root guard feature be configured to preserve SW3 as a root bridge?
A. SW4 Gi0/0 interface.
B. Sw3 Gi0/0 interface.
C. Sw2 Gi0/1 interface.
D. SW2 Gi0/1 and SW3 Gi0/1
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 389
Refer to the exhibit.


What is the reason for the failure of the DMVPN session between R1 and R2?
A. tunnel mode mismatch
B. IPsec phase-1 configuration missing peer address on R2
C. IPsec phase-1 policy mismatch
D. IPsec phase-2 policy mismatch
E. incorrect tunnel source interface on R1

Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 390
Refer to the exhibit.


Which statement about the exhibit is true?
A. The tunnel configuration is incomplete and the DMVPN session will fail between R1 and R2.
B. IPsec phase-2 will fail to negotiate due to a mismatch in parameters.
C. A DMVPN session will establish between R1 and R2 provided that the BGP and EIGRP configurations are correct.
D. A DMVPN session will establish between R1 and R2 provided that the BGP configuration is correct.
E. A DMVPN session will fail to establish because R2 is missing the ISAKMP peer address.

Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 391
Refer to the exhibit.


Identify the behavior of the ACL if it is applied inbound on E0/0.
A. The ACL will drop both initial and noninitial fragments for port 80 only.
B. The ACL will pass both initial and noninitial fragments for port 80 only.
C. The ACL will pass the initial fragment for port 80 but drop the noninitial fragment for any port.
D. The ACL will drop the initial fragment for port 80 but pass the noninitial fragment for any port.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 392
Refer to the exhibit.

Identify the behavior of the ACL if it is applied inbound on E0/0.
A. The ACL will drop both initial and noninitial fragments for port 80 only.
B. The ACL will pass both initial and non-initial fragments for port 80 only.
C. The ACL will pass the initial fragment for port 80 but drop the noninitial fragment for any port.
D. The ACL will drop the initial fragment for port 80 but pass the noninitial fragment for any port.
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 393
Which three are RFC 5735 addresses? (Choose three.)
A. 171.10.0.0/24
B. 0.0.0.0/8
C. 203.0.113.0/24

D. 192.80.90.0/24
E. 172.16.0.0/12
F. 198.50.100.0/24
Answer: B,C,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 394
Which statement about ISO/IEC 27001 is true?
A. ISO/IEC 27001 is only intended to report security breaches to the management authority.
B. ISO/IEC 27001 was reviewed by the International Organization for Standardization.
C. ISO/IEC 27001 is intend to bring information security under management control.
D. ISO/IEC 27001 was reviewed by the International Electrotechnical Commission.
E. ISO/IEC 27001 was published by ISO/IEC.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 395
Which two statements about the ISO are true? (Choose two.)
A. The ISO is a government-based organization.
B. The ISO has three membership categories: Member, Correspondent, and Subscribers.
C. Subscriber members are individual organizations.
D. Only member bodies have voting rights.
E. Correspondent bodies are small countries with their own standards organization.
Answer: B,D Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 396
Which three IP resources is the IANA responsible? (Choose three.)
A. IP address allocation

B. detection of spoofed address
C. criminal prosecution of hackers
D. autonomous system number allocation
E. root zone management in DNS
F. BGP protocol vulnerabilities
Answer: A,D,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 397
Which two statements about RFC 2827 are true? (Choose two.)
A. RFC 2827 defines egress packet filtering to safeguard against IP spoofing.
B. A corresponding practice is documented by the IEFT in BCP 38.
C. RFC 2827 defines ingress packet filtering for the multihomed network.
D. RFC 2827 defines ingress packet filtering to defeat DoS using IP spoofing.
E. A corresponding practice is documented by the IEFT in BCP 84.
Answer: B,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 398
Which two statements about SOX are true? (Choose two.)
A. SOX is an IEFT compliance procedure for computer systems security.
B. SOX is a US law.
C. SOX is an IEEE compliance procedure for IT management to produce audit reports.
D. SOX is a private organization that provides best practices for financial institution computer systems.
E. Section 404 of SOX is related to IT compliance.
Answer: B,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 399
Refer to the exhibit.


Which three statements correctly describe the configuration? (Choose three).
A. The tunnel is not providing peer authentication
B. The tunnel encapsulates multicast traffic.
C. This is a point-to-point GRE tunnel.
D. The configuration is on the NHS.
E. The configuration is on the NHC.
F. The tunnel provides data confidentiality.
G. The tunnel IP address represents the NBMA address.

Answer: B,D,F Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 400
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement correctly describes the configuration?

A. The configuration is the super view configuration of role-based access control.
B. The configuration would not work unless the AAA server is configured for authentication and authorization.
C. The exec commands in the configuration will be excluded from the test view.
D. The configuration is the CLI configuration of role-based access control.
Answer: D Explanation:
Topic 5, Volume E

QUESTION NO: 401
Which item is not encrypted by ESP?
A. ESP header
B. ESP trailer
C. IP header
D. Data
E. TCP-UDP header
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 402
Which item is not authenticated by ESP?
A. ESP header
B. ESP trailer
C. New IP header
D. Original IP header
E. Data
F. TCP-UDP header
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 403
Which statement about the distributed SYN flood attack is true?

A. A distributed SYN flood attack is carried out only by the valid address.
B. A distributed SYN flood attack is carried out only by spoofed addresses.
C. Botnet could be used to launch a distributed SYN flood attack.
D. A distributed SYN flood attack does not completely deplete TCBs SYN-Received state backlog.
E. A distributed SYN flood attack is the most effective SYN flood attack because it targets server memory.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 404
Which statement about the Cisco NAC CAS is true?
A. The Cisco NAC CAS acts as a gateway between untrusted networks.
B. The Cisco NAC CAS can only operate as an in-band real IP gateway.
C. The Cisco NAC CAS can operate as an out-of-band virtual gateway.
D. The Cisco NAC CAS is an administration and monitoring server.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 405
Which statement about the prelogin assessment module in Cisco Secure Desktop is true?
A. It assigns an IP address to the remote device after successful authentication.
B. It checks for any viruses on the remote device and reports back to the security appliance.
C. It checks the presence or absence of specified files on the remote device.
D. It clears the browser cache on the remote device after successful authentication.
E. It quarantines the remote device for further assessment if specific registry keys are found.
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 406
Which two statements about dynamic ARP inspection are true? (Choose two.)

A. Dynamic ARP inspection checks ARP packets on both trusted and untrusted ports.
B. Dynamic ARP inspection is only supported on access and trunk ports.
C. Dynamic ARP inspection checks invalid ARP packets against the trusted database.
D. The trusted database to check for an invalid ARP packet is manually configured.
E. Dynamic ARP inspection does not perform ingress security checking.
F. DHCP snooping must be enabled.
Answer: C,F Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 407
Which statement about DHCP snooping is true?
A. The dynamic ARP inspection feature must be enabled for DHCP snooping to work.
B. DHCP snooping is enabled on a per-VLAN basis.
C. DHCP snooping builds a binding database using information that is extracted from intercepted ARP requests.
D. DHCP snooping is enabled on a per-port basis.
E. DHCP snooping is does not rate-limit DHCP traffic from trusted ports.
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 408
Which two statements about PCI DSS are true? (Choose two.)
A. PCI DSS is a US government standard that defines ISP security compliance.
B. PCI DSS is a proprietary security standard that defines a framework for credit, debit, and ATM cardholder information.
C. PCI DSS is a criminal act of cardholder information fraud.
D. One of the PCI DSS objectives is to restrict physical access to credit, debit, and ATM cardholder information.
E. PCI DSS is an IETF standard for companies to protect credit, debit, and ATM cardholder information.
Answer: B,D Explanation:



QUESTION NO: 409
Refer to the exhibit.

Why does the EasyVPN session fail to establish between the client and server?
A. Incomplete IPsec phase-1 configuration on the server
B. Incorrect IPsec phase-2 configuration on the server
C. Incorrect group configuration on the client
D. ISAKMP key mismatch
E. Incorrect ACL in the ISAKMP client group configuration
Answer: C Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 410

Refer to the exhibit.

Why does the EasyVPN session fail to establish between the client and server?
A. Incomplete ISAKMP profile configuration on the server
B. Incorrect IPsec phase-2 configuration on the server
C. Incorrect group configuration on the client
D. ISAKMP key mismatch
E. Incorrect virtual-template configuration on the sever
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 411 DRAG DROP


Answer:

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 412 DRAG DROP

Answer: Explanation:



QUESTION NO: 413 DRAG DROP

Answer:

Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 414 DRAG DROP

Answer:

Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 415 DRAG DROP

Answer:

Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 416 DRAG DROP

Answer:

Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 417 DRAG DROP

Answer:

Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 418 DRAG DROP

Answer:


Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 419 DRAG DROP

Answer:


QUESTION NO: 420 DRAG DROP

Answer:

Explanation:



QUESTION NO: 421
Refer to the exhibit.


Which command caused the above messages?
A. Neighbor 101.0.0.1 maximum-prefix 500 80 warning-only.
B. Neighbor 101.0.0.1 maximum-prefix 500 90.
C. Neighbor 101.0.0.1 maximum-prefix 500 70.
D. Neighbor 101.0.0.1 maximum-prefix 500 70 warning-only.
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 422
Which two options describe the main purpose of EIGRP authentication? (Choose two.)
A. To identify authorized peers.
B. To allow faster convergence
C. To provide redundancy
D. To prevent injection of incorrect routing information.
E. To provide routing updates confidentiality
Answer: A,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 423
Which statement about IPv6 is true?
A. Broadcast is available.
B. The address pool will never deplete.
C. Data security is natively supported through mandatory IPv6 extension headers for ESP and AH.
D. Increased NAT is required compared to IPv4.
E. IPv6 has fewer bits available for addressing than IPv4.
Answer: C Explanation: QUESTION NO: 424



Which IPv4 header field usually increments for each subsequent packet sent?
A. Flag
B. Fragment Offset
C. Identification
D. Time To Live
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 425
Which address range is representative of Automatic Private IP Addressing?
A. 10.1.x.x
B. 172.10.1.x
C. 169.254.x.x
D. 196.245.x.x
E. 128.1.1.x
F. 127.1.x.x
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 426
Which ICMP message type code indicates fragmentation needed but DF bit set?
A. Type 3, Code 0
B. Type 4, Code 2
C. Type 3, Code 4
D. Type 8, Code 0
Answer: C Explanation: QUESTION NO: 427



Which group of devices is represented by the IPv6 address ff02::1?
A. All PIM routers on the local network.
B. All the routers running RIP on the local network.
C. All nodes on the local network.
D. All NTP servers on the local network.
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 428
Which statement about layer-2 VLAN is true?
A. VLAN cannot be routed.
B. VLANs 1006 through 4094 are not propagated by VTP version 3.
C. VLAN1 is a Cisco default VLAN that can be deleted.
D. The extended-range VLANs cannot be configured in global configuration mode.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 429
Which two statements about the OSPF authentication configuration are true? (Choose two.)
A. OSPF authentication is required in area 0.
B. There are three types of OSPF authentication options available.
C. In MD5 authentication, the password is encrypted when it is sent.
D. Null authentication includes the password in clear-text.
E. Type-3 authentication is a clear-text password authentication.
F. In MD5 authentication, the password never goes across the network.
Answer: B,F Explanation:



QUESTION NO: 430
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two items are not encrypted by ESP in tunnel mode? (Choose two)
A. ESP header
B. ESP trailer
C. Original IP header
D. Data
E. TCP-UDP header
F. Authentication Data
Answer: A,F Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 431
Which statement about DH group is true?

A. The DH group does not provide data authentication.
B. The DH group is used to provide data confidentiality.
C. The DH group is used to establish a shared key over a secured medium.
D. The DH group is negotiated in IPsec phase-2.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 432
Which three statements about the RSA algorithm are true to provide data confidentiality? (Choose three.)
A. The RSA algorithm provides encryption and authentication.
B. The RSA algorithm provides authentication but not encryption.
C. The RSA algorithm creates a pair of public-private keys and the public key is shared to perform encryption.
D. The private key is never shared after it is generated.
E. The public key is used to decrypt the message that was encrypted by the private key.
F. The private key is used to decrypt the message that was encrypted by the public key.
Answer: C,D,F Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 433
Refer to the exhibit.


Which item is not authenticated by ESP in tunnel mode?
A. ESP header
B. ESP trailer
C. New IP header
D. Original IP header
E. Data
F. TCP-UDP header
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 434
Which statement about DHCP is true?
A. DHCP uses TCP port 68 and 67
B. The DHCPDiscover packet is a broadcast message
C. The DHCPRequest is a unicast message.
D. The DHCPOffer packet is sent from the DHCP client
Answer: B Explanation: QUESTION NO: 435



Which three statements about SMTP are true? (Choose three.)
A. SMTP uses TCP port 25.
B. The POP protocol is used by the SMTP client to manage stored mail.
C. The IMAP protocol is used by the SMTP client to send email.
D. The mail delivery agent in the SMTP architecture is responsible for DNS lookup.
E. SMTPS uses SSL and TLS.
F. SMTP uses TCP port 587.
Answer: A,E,F Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 436
Which statement about DNS is true?
A. The client-server architecture is based on push-pull messages.
B. Query and response messages have different format.
C. In the DNS message header, the QR flag set to 1 indicates a query.
D. In the DNS header, an Opcode value of 2 represents a server status request.
E. In the DNS header, the Rcode value is set to 0 for format error.
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 437
Which statement about Infrastructure ACLs on Cisco IOS software is true?
A. Infrastructure ACLs are used to protect the device forwarding path.
B. Infrastructure ACLs are used to protect device management and internal link addresses.
C. Infrastructure ACLs are used to authorize the transit traffic.
D. Infrastructure ACLs only protect device physical management interface.
Answer: B Explanation: QUESTION NO: 438



In traceroute, which ICMP message indicates the packet is dropped by a router in the path?
A. Type 3, Code 3
B. Type 11, Code 0
C. Type 5, Code 1
D. Type 3, Code 1
E. Type 11, Code 1
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 439
Which option is an example of network reconnaissance attack?
A. botnets
B. ping of death
C. SYN flooding
D. inverse mapping
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 440
Which statement about Cisco IPS signatures is true?
A. All of the built-in signatures are enabled by default.
B. Tuned signatures are built-in signatures whose parameters cannot be adjusted.
C. Once the signature is removed from the sensing engine it cannot be restored.
D. It is recommended to retire a signature not being used to enhance the sensor performance.
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 441

Which two statements correctly describe ASA resource management in multiple context mode? (Choose two.)
A. The class sets the resource maximum limit for a context to which it belongs.
B. A resource cannot be oversubscribed or set to be unlimited in the class.
C. The resource limit can only be set as a percentage in the class and not as an absolute value.
D. Context belongs to a default class if not assigned to any other class.
E. The default class provides unlimited access for all the resources.
Answer: A,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 442
Event Action Rule is a component of which IPS application?
A. InterfaceApp
B. MainApp
C. SensorApp
D. NotificationApp
E. AuthenticationApp
F. SensorDefinition
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 443
For what reason is BVI required in the Transparent Cisco IOS Firewall?
A. BVI is required for the inspection of IP traffic.
B. BVI is required if routing is disabled on the firewall.
C. BVI is required if more than two interfaces are in the same bridge group.
D. BVI is required for the inspection of non-IP traffic.
E. BVI cannot be used to manage the device.
Answer: C Explanation: QUESTION NO: 444



Depending on configuration, which of the following two behaviors can the ASA classifier exhibit when receiving unicast traffic on an interface shared by multiple contexts? (Choose two.)
A. Traffic is classified using the destination address of the packet using the connection table.
B. Traffic is classified using the destination address of the packet using the NAT table.
C. Traffic is classified using the destination address of the packet using the routing table.
D. Traffic is classified by copying and sending the packet to all the contexts.
E. Traffic is classified using the destination MAC address of the packet.
Answer: B,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 445
Which Cisco IPS appliance signature engine inspects IPv6 Layer 3 traffic?
A. Atomic IP
B. Meta
C. Atomic IP Advanced
D. Fixed
E. Service
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 446
Which statement about the TACACS+ AV pair is true?
A. AV pair value is integer.
B. Cisco ACS does not support accounting AV pairs.
C. AV pair values could be both strings and integers.
D. AV pair does not have value type.
Answer: D Explanation: QUESTION NO: 447



In Cisco IOS firewall the HTTP inspection engine has the ability to protect against which of the following?
A. Tunneling over port 443.
B. Tunneling over port 80.
C. HTTP file transfers authorized by the configured security policy.
D. Authorized request methods.
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 448
Which statement correctly describes a category for the ASA Botnet Traffic Filter feature?
A. Unlisted addresses: The addresses are malware addresses that are not identified by the dynamic database and are hence defined statically.
B. Ambiguous addresses: In this case, the same domain name has multiple malware addresses. These addresses are on the graylist.
C. Known malware addresses: These addresses are identified as blacklist addresses in the dynamic database and static list.
D. Known allowed addresses: These addresses are identified as whitelist addresses that are bad addresses but still allowed.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 449
Which three statements about Dynamic ARP Inspection on Cisco Switches are true? (Choose three.)
A. Dynamic ARP inspection checks ARP packets on both trusted and untrusted ports.
B. Dynamic ARP inspection is only supported on access ports.
C. Dynamic ARP inspection checks ARP packets against the trusted database.
D. The trusted database can be manually configured using the CLI.
E. Dynamic ARP inspection does not perform ingress security checking.
F. DHCP snooping is used to dynamically build the trusted database.

Answer: C,D,F Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 450
Refer to the exhibit.

Which option describes the behavior of the ACL if it is applied inbound on E0/0?
A. The ACL will drop both initial and noninitial fragments for port 80 only.
B. The ACL will pass both initial and noninitial fragments for port 80 only.
C. The ACL will pass the initial fragment for port 80 but drop the noninitial fragment for any port.
D. The ACL will drop the initial fragment for port 80 but pass the noninitial fragment for any port.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 451
Which two statements about the storm control implementation on the switch are true? (Choose two.)
A. Traffic storm level is the percentage of total available bandwidth of the port.
B. Traffic storm level is the rate at which layer 3 traffic is received on the port.
C. Traffic storm control monitors only the broadcast traffic.
D. Traffic storm control monitors the broadcast, multicast, and unicast traffic.
E. Traffic storm level is the rate at which layer 2 traffic is received on the port.
F. A Lower storm control level means more traffic is allowed to pass through.

Answer: A,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 452
Refer to the exhibit.

Why does the Easy VPN session fail to establish between the client and server?
A. Incomplete ISAKMP profile configuration on the server
B. Incorrect IPsec phase-2 configuration on the server
C. Incorrect group configuration on the client
D. ISAKMP key mismatch
E. Incorrect virtual-template configuration on the sever

Answer: A Explanation:



QUESTION NO: 453
Refer to the exhibit.

Why is there no encrypted session between host 10.10.10.1 and 20.20.20.1?
A. Incorrect or missing phase 2 configuration on the server.
B. Incorrect or missing Virtual-Template configuration on the server.
C. Incorrect or missing phase 1 configuration on server.
D. Incorrect or missing Virtual-Template configuration on the client.
E. Incorrect or missing group configuration on the server.
Answer: E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 454
Which three types of traffic are generally policed via CoPP policies? (Choose three.)

A. Transit traffic
B. Routing protocol traffic
C. IPsec traffic
D. Traffic that is destined to any of the device's interfaces.
E. Traffic from a management protocol such as Telnet or SNMP
Answer: B,D,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 455
Refer to the exhibit.

Why is there no encrypted session between host 10.10.10.1 and 20.20.20.1?
A. Incorrect or missing group configuration on the client.
B. Incorrect or missing phase 2 configuration on the server.
C. Incorrect or missing Virtual-Template configuration on the server.
D. Incorrect or missing phase 1 configuration on server.
E. Incorrect or missing Virtual-Template configuration on the client.
F. Incorrect or missing group configuration on the server.

Answer: E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 456
Which statement about the PVLAN is true?
A. Promiscuous ports can only communicate with other promiscuous ports.
B. Isolated ports cannot communicate with the other promiscuous ports.
C. Community ports can communicate with the other promiscuous ports but not with the other community ports.
D. Isolated ports can communicate with the other isolated ports only.
E. Promiscuous ports can communicate with all the other type of ports.
F. Community ports can communicate with the other community ports but not with promiscuous ports.
Answer: E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 457
Refer to the exhibit.

Which option describes the behavior of the ACL if it is applied inbound on E0/0?
A. The ACL will drop both initial and noninitial fragments for port 80 only.
B. The ACL will pass both initial fragments for port 80 and non-initial fragments.
C. The ACL will pass the initial fragment for port 80 but drop the noninitial fragment for any port.
D. The ACL will drop the initial fragment for port 80 but pass the noninitial fragment for any port.

Answer: B Explanation:



QUESTION NO: 458
Which three IP resources is IANA responsible for? (Choose three.)
A. IP address allocation
B. detection of spoofed address
C. criminal prosecution of hackers
D. autonomous system number allocation
E. root zone management in DNS
F. BGP protocol vulnerabilities
Answer: A,D,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 459
Which is a core function of the risk assessment process?
A. performing regular network upgrades
B. performing network optimization
C. performing network posture validation
D. establishing network baselines
E. prioritizing network roll-outs
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 460
Which three addresses are special use as defined in RFC 5735? (Choose three.)
A. 171.10.0.0/24
B. 0.0.0.0/8
C. 203.0.113.0/24
D. 192.80.90.0/24
E. 172.16.0.0/12

F. 198.50.100.0/24
Answer: B,C,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 461
Which statement about Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX) is true?
A. SOX is an IEFT compliance procedure for computer systems security.
B. SOX is a US law.
C. SOX is an IEEE compliance procedure for IT management to produce audit reports.
D. SOX is a private organization that provides best practices for financial institution computer systems.
E. Section 404 of SOX is only related to IT compliance.

Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 462
Refer to the exhibit.

Which AS-PATH access-list regular expression should be applied on R2 to allow only updates that

originate from AS-65001 or an AS that attaches directly to AS-65001?
A. ^65001_[0-9]*$
B. _65001^[0-9]*
C. 65001_[0.9]$
D. ^65001_*$
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 463
Which VPN technology is based on GDOI (RFC 3547)?
A. MPLS Layer 3 VPN
B. MPLS Layer 2 VPN
C. GET VPN
D. IPsec VPN
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 464
Which three basic security measures are used to harden MSDP? (Choose three.)
A. MSDP SA filters
B. MSDP state limitation
C. MSDP MD5 neighbor authentication
D. MSDP neighbor limitation
E. loopback interface as MSDP originator-ID
Answer: A,B,C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 465
A device is sending a PDU of 5000 B on a link with an MTU of 1500 B. If the PDU includes 20 B of IP header, which statement is true considering the most efficient way to transmit this PDU?

A. The first three packets will have a packet payload size of 1400.
B. The last packet will have a payload size of 560.
C. The first three packets will have a packet payload size of 1480.
D. The last packet will have a payload size of 20.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 466
Refer to the exhibit.

Which option describes the behavior of this configuration?
A. Traffic from the 30.30.0.0/16 network to the 10.10.0.0/32 network will be translated.
B. Traffic from the 30.30.0.0/32 network to the 10.10.0.0/16 network will not be translated.
C. Traffic from the 10.10.0.0/16 network to the 30.30.30.0/24 network will not be translated.
D. Traffic from the 10.10.0.0/32 network to the 30.30.30.0/16 network will be translated.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 467
Refer to the exhibit.


Which option describes the behavior of this configuration?
A. Traffic from the n2 network object to the outside network will be translated using the g1 network objects and outside interface.
B. Traffic from the n3 network object to the inside network will be translated using the g1 network objects and outside interface.
C. Traffic from the n1 network object to the outside network will be translated using the g1 network object and outside interface.
D. Traffic from the n3 network object to the outside network will be translated using the g1 network object and outside interface.

Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 468
Refer to the exhibit.

Which option describes the behavior of this configuration?
A. Traffic from the n2 network object to the inside network will be translated using the n1 network

object.
B. Traffic from the n1 network object to the outside network will be translated using the n2 network object.
C. Traffic from the n2 network object to the outside network will be translated using the n1 network object.
D. Traffic from the n2 network object to the outside network will be translated using the n2 network object.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 469
What is the purpose of aaa server radius dynamic-author command?
A. Enables the device to dynamically receive updates from a policy server
B. Enables the switch to automatically authorize the connecting device if all the configured RADIUS servers are unavailable
C. Impairs the ability to configure RADIUS local AAA
D. This command disables dynamic authorization local server configuration mode.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 470
Which of the following two statements apply to EAP-FAST? (Choose two.)
A. EAP-FAST is useful when a strong password policy cannot be enforced and an 802.1X EAP type that does not require digital certificates can be deployed.
B. EAP-FAST was developed only for Cisco devices and is not compliant with 802.1X and 802.11i.
C. EAP-FAST provides protection from authentication forging and packet forgery (replay attack).
D. EAP-FAST is a client/client security architecture.
Answer: A,C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 471

On Cisco routers, there are two mutually exclusive types of RSA key pairs: special-usage keys and general-purpose keys. When you generate RSA key pairs, you are prompted to select either special-usage keys or general-purpose keys. Which set of statements is true?
A. If you generate special-usage keys, two pairs of RSA keys are generated. One pair is used with any IKE policy that specifies RSA signatures as the authentication method. The other pair is used with any IKE policy that specifies RSA encrypted keys as the authentication method.
B. If you generate a named key pair, only one pair of RSA keys is generated. This pair is used with IKE policies that specify either RSA signatures or RSA encrypted keys. Therefore, a general-purpose key pair might be used more frequently than a special-usage key pair.
C. If you generate general-purpose keys, you must also specify the usage-key keyword or the general-key keyword. Named key pairs allow you to have multiple RSA key pairs, enabling the Cisco IOS Software to maintain a different key pair for each identity certificate.
D. special-usage key pair is default in Cisco IOS
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 472
What are two advantages of using NLA with Windows Terminal Services? (Choose two.)
A. uses SPNEGO and TLS to provide optional double encryption of user credentials
B. forces the use of Kerberos to pass credentials from client to server
C. protects against man-in-the-middle attacks
D. requires clients to present an SSL certificate to verify their authenticity
E. protects servers against DoS attacks by requiring lesser resources for authentication
Answer: A,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 473
In an operating system environment, which three attacks give a user elevated privileges to access resources that are otherwise blocked? (Choose three.)
A. backdoor
B. rootkit
C. privilege escalation
D. DoS

E. smurf
Answer: A,B,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 474
Cisco firewalls and routers can respond to a TCP SYN packet that is destined for a protected resource, by using a SYN-ACK packet to validate the source of the SYN packet. What is this feature called?
A. IP reverse path verification
B. TCP reverse path verification
C. TCP sequence number randomization
D. TCP intercept
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 475
Refer to the exhibit.

Which set of commands is required on an ASA to fix the problem that the exhibit shows?
A. ciscoasa(config)# webvpn ciscoasa(config-webvpn)# enable ciscoasa(config)# webvpn
B. ciscoasa(config-webvpn)#anyconnect enable ciscoasa(config)# webvpn ciscoasa(config-webvpn)# enable

C. ciscoasa(config-webvpn)# anyconnect enable ciscoasa(config)# webvpn
D. ciscoasa(config-webvpn)#anyconnect enable ciscoasa(config-webvpn)#anyconnect image 1
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 476
Refer to the exhibit.

Client1 has an IPsec VPN tunnel established to a Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance in Chicago. The remote access VPN client wants to access www.cisco.com, but split tunneling is disabled. Which of these is the appropriate configuration on the Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance if the VPN client's public IP address is 209.165.201.10 and it is assigned a private address from 192.168.1.0/24?
A. same-security-traffic permit intra-interface ip local pool ippool 192.168.1.1-192.168.1.254 global (outside) 1 209.165.200.230 nat (inside) 1 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0
B. same-security-traffic permit intra-interface ip local pool ippool 192.168.1.1-192.168.1.254 global (outside) 1 209.165.200.230 nat (outside) 1 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0
C. same-security-traffic permit intra-interface ip local pool ippool 192.168.1.1-192.168.1.254 global (inside) 1 209.165.200.230 nat (inside) 1 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0
D. same-security-traffic permit intra-interface ip local pool ippool 192.168.1.1-192.168.1.254 global (outside) 1 209.165.200.230 nat (outside) 1 209.165.201.10 255.255.255.255
E. same-security-traffic permit intra-interface ip local pool ippool 192.168.1.1-192.168.1.254

global (outside) 1 209.165.200.230 nat (inside) 1 209.165.201.10 255.255.255.255
F. same-security-traffic permit intra-interface ip local pool ippool 192.168.1.1-192.168.1.254 global (inside) 1 209.165.200.230 nat (inside) 1 209.165.201.10 255.255.255.255
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 477
Which statement about the Cisco Secure Desktop hostscan endpoint assessment feature is true?
A. Advanced endpoint assessment gives you the ability to turn on an antivirus active scan function if it has been disabled.
B. Advanced endpoint assessment cannot force the antivirus software to automatically update the dat file if it has not been updated in n days.
C. With basic endpoint assessment, you cannot check for multiple antivirus vendors products and version.
D. Advanced endpoint assessment cannot enable the firewall if it has been disabled.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 478
Which port is used by default to communicate between VPN load-balancing ASAs?
A. TCP 9022
B. UDP 9023
C. TCP 9023
D. UDP 9022
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 479

Which three statements apply to the behavior of Cisco AnyConnect client auto-reconnect? (Choose three.)
A. By default, Cisco AnyConnect attempts to re-establish a VPN connection when you lose connectivity to the secure gateway.
B. With respect to VPN load balancing and Cisco AnyConnect reconnect, the client reconnects to the cluster member with the highest priority.
C. Cisco AnyConnect reconnects when the network interface changes, whether the IP of the NIC changes or whether connectivity switches from one NIC to another; for example, wireless to wired or vice versa.
D. With respect to VPN load balancing and Cisco AnyConnect reconnect, the client reconnects directly to the cluster member to which it was previously connected.
E. By default, Cisco AnyConnect attempts to re-establish a VPN connection following a system resume.
Answer: A,C,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 480
Which two statements about the Cisco AnyConnect client Trusted Network Detection feature are true? (Choose two.)
A. The feature relies only on the DNS server list to detect whether the client machine is in a trusted or untrusted network.
B. An attacker can theoretically host a malicious DHCP server and return data that triggers the client to believe that it resides in a trusted network.
C. If an attacker knows the DNS server value that is configured in the Cisco AnyConnect profile and provisions the DHCP server to return both a real and spoofed value, then Cisco AnyConnect considers the endpoint to be in an untrusted network.
D. The feature does not provide AnyConnect ability to automatically establish VPN connection when the user is outside the trusted network.
Answer: B,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 481
Which two statements apply to the method that ASA uses for tunnel-group lookup for LAN-to-LAN IPSec connections when using PSK-based authentication? (Choose two.)

A. If the configuration does not contain the tunnel-group with the IKE ID or peer IP address DefaultRAGroup, DefaultL2LGroup is used instead.
B. DefaultL2LGroup is used only if the PSK check in DefaultRAGroup fails.
C. DefaultRAGroup is used only if the PSK check in DefaultL2LGroup fails.
D. You can delete and create new default tunnels groups as needed.
Answer: A,B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 482
You are trying to set up a site-to-site IPsec tunnel between two Cisco ASA adaptive security appliances, but you are not able to pass traffic. You try to troubleshoot the issue by enabling debug crypto isakmp and see the following messages:
CiscoASA# debug crypto isakmp
[IKEv1]: Group = 209.165.200.231, IP = 209.165.200.231, Tunnel RejecteD. Conflicting protocols specified by tunnel-group and group-policy
[IKEv1]: Group = 209.165.200.231, IP = 209.165.200.231, QM FSM error (P2 struct &0xb0cf31e8, mess id 0x97d965e5)!
[IKEv1]: Group = 209.165.200.231, IP = 209.165.200.231, Removing peer from correlator table failed, no match!
What could be the potential problem?
A. The policy group mapped to the site-to-site tunnel group is configured to use both IPsec and SSL VPN tunnels.
B. The policy group mapped to the site-to-site tunnel group is configured to use both IPsec and L2TP over IPsec tunnels.
C. The policy group mapped to the site-to-site tunnel group is configured to just use the SSL VPN tunnel.
D. The site-to-site tunnel group is configured to use both IPsec and L2TP over IPsec tunnels.
E. The site-to-site tunnel group is configured to just use the SSL VPN tunnel.
Answer: C Explanation: QUESTION NO: 483



Which record statement is part of the NetFlow monitor configuration that is used to collect MPLS traffic with an IPv6 payload?
A. record mpls IPv6-fields labels 3
B. record mpls IPv4-fields labels 3
C. record mpls labels 3
D. record mpls ipv6-fields labels
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 484
Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration is required to enable the exporter?
A. Source Loopback0
B. Cache timeout active 60
C. Cache timeout inactive 60
D. Next-hop address
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 485
Hierarchical priority queuing is used on the interfaces on which you enable a traffic-shaping queue. Which two statements about hierarchical priority queuing are true? (Choose two.)

A. Priority packets are never dropped from the shape queue unless the sustained rate of priority traffic exceeds the shape rate.
B. For IPsec-encrypted packets, you can match traffic based only on the DSCP or precedence setting.
C. IPsec over TCP is not supported for priority traffic classification.
D. For IPsec-encrypted packets, you cannot match traffic based on the DSCP or precedence setting.
E. IPsec over TCP is supported for priority traffic classification.
Answer: B,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 486
Which two MAC authentication methods are supported on WLCs? (Choose two.)
A. local MAC authentication
B. MAC authentication using a RADIUS server
C. MAC authentication using tokens
D. MAC authentication using a PIN
Answer: A,B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 487
Client MFP supplements rather than replaces infrastructure MFP. Which three are client MFP components? (Choose three.)
A. key generation and distribution
B. protection and validation of management frames
C. error reports
D. error generation
E. non-management messages protection
Answer: A,B,C Explanation: QUESTION NO: 488



When you work on a change-management process, you generally identify potential change, review the change request, implement change, then review the change and close the process. In which step should the stakeholder be involved?
A. Identifying potential change
B. Reviewing the change request
C. Implementation
D. Reviewing and closing
E. Depends on the stakeholder request
Answer: E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 489
Many guidelines can be used to identify the areas that security policies should cover. In which four areas is coverage most important? (Choose four.)
A. Physical
B. Host
C. User
D. Document
E. Incident handling and response
F. Security awareness training
Answer: A,B,C,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 490
IANA is responsible for which three IP resources? (Choose three.)
A. IP address allocation
B. Detection of spoofed address
C. Criminal prosecution of hackers
D. Autonomous system number allocation
E. Root zone management in DNS
F. BGP protocol vulnerabilities


Answer: A,D,E Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 491
Which two items are required for LDAP authenticated bind operations? (Choose two.)
A. Root DN
B. Password
C. Username
D. SSO
E. UID
Answer: A,B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 492
Which of the following two options can you configure to avoid iBGP full mesh? (Choose two.)
A. Route reflectors
B. Confederations
C. BGP NHT
D. Local preference
E. Virtual peering
Answer: A,B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 493
Which three authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose three.)
A. Null
B. Plaintext
C. MD5
D. PAP

E. PEAP
F. MS-CHAP
Answer: A,B,C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 494
Which three steps are required to rekey the routers on a link without dropping OSPFv3 protocol packets or disturbing the adjacency? (Choose three.)
A. For every router on the link, create an additional inbound SA for the interface that is being rekeyed using a new SPI and the new key.
B. For every router on the link, replace the original outbound SA with one that uses the new SPI and key values.
C. For every router on the link, remove the original inbound SA.
D. For every router on the link, create an additional outbound SA for the interface that is being rekeyed using a new SPI and the new key.
E. For every router on the link, replace the original inbound SA with one that uses the new SPI and key values.
F. For every router on the link, remove the original outbound SA.
Answer: A,B,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 495
Which BGP configuration forces the session to tear down when the learned routes from the neighbor exceed 10?
A. neighbor 10.0.0.1 maximum-prefix 10 80 warning-only
B. neighbor 10.0.0.1 maximum-prefix 10 80
C. neighbor 10.0.0.1 maximum-prefix 80 10 warning-only
D. neighbor 10.0.0.1 maximum-prefix 80 10
Answer: B Explanation: QUESTION NO: 496



Which command can be used on a Cisco IOS device to prevent it from being used as an amplifier in a fraggle attack?
A. no service tcp-small-servers
B. no service udp-small-servers
C. no ip directed-broadcast
D. no ip redirects
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 497
Which option is used for anti-replay prevention in a Cisco IOS IPsec implementation using tunnel protection?
A. Session token
B. One-time password
C. Time stamps
D. Sequence number
E. Nonce
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 498
Refer to the exhibit.


Based on the show command output, which statement is true?
A. A NAT/PAT device is translating the local VPN endpoint.
B. A NAT/PAT device is translating the remote VPN endpoint.
C. A NAT/PAT device exists in the path between VPN endpoints.
D. No NAT/PAT device exists in the path between VPN endpoints.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 499
Interface tunnel 1 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252 ip mtu 1400 Tunnel source 172.16.1.1 Tunnel destination 172.16.1.2 Tunnel key 1111
Based on the above configuration, if the input packet size is 1300 bytes, what is the size of the packet leaves the tunnel after encapsulation?

A. 1324
B. 1325
C. 1326
D. 1328
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 500
You run the show ipv6 port-map telnet command and you see that the port 23 (system-defined) message and the port 223 (user-defined) message are displayed. Which command is in the router configuration?
A. ipv6 port-map port telnet 223
B. ipv6 port-map port 23 port 23223
C. ipv6 port-map telnet port 23 233
D. ipv6 port-map telnet port 223
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 501
At the end of the Cisco TrustSec authentication process, which three pieces of information do both authenticator and supplicant know? (Choose three.)
A. Peer device ID
B. Peer Cisco TrustSec capability information
C. SAP key
D. Server device ID
E. Service ID
F. Server peers information
Answer: A,B,C Explanation: QUESTION NO: 502



You are preparing Control Plane Protection configurations for implementation on the router, which has the EBGP peering address 1.1.1.2. Which ACL statement can you use to classify the related traffic into the EBGP traffic compartment?
A. permit tcp host 1.1.1.1 gt 1024 host 1.1.1.2 eq bgp permit tcp host 1.1.1.1 eq bgp host 1.1.1.2 gt 1024
B. permit tcp host 1.1.1.2 gt 1024 host 1.1.1.2 eq bgp permit tcp host 1.1.1.2 eq bgp host 1.1.1.2 gt 1024
C. permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 gt 1024 host 10.1.1.2 eq bgp permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 eq bgp host 10.1.1.2 gt 1024
D. permit tcp host 1.1.1.1 gt 1024 host 1.1.1.1 eq bgp permit tcp host 1.1.1.1 eq bgp host 1.1.1.1 gt 1024
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 503
Which command enables fast-switched PBR?
A. Router(config-if)# ip route-cache policy
B. Router(config-if)# ip policy route-map map-tag
C. Router(config-if)# no ip route-cache policy
D. Router(config-if)# no ip policy route-map map-tag
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 504
Which of these configurations shows how to configure MPP when only SSH, SNMP, and HTTP are allowed to access the router through the Gigabit Ethernet 0/3 interface and only HTTP is allowed to access the router through the Gigabit Ethernet 0/2 interface?
A. Router(config-cp-host)# management-interface GigabitEthernet 0/3 allow http ssh snmp Router(config-cp-host)# management-interface GigabitEthernet 0/2 allow http
B. Router(config-cp-host)# management-interface GigabitEthernet 0/3 allow http ssh tftp snmp Router(config-cp-host)# management-interface GigabitEthernet 0/2 allow http
C. Router(config-cp-host)# management-interface GigabitEthernet 0/3 allow http ssh snmp Router(config-cp-host)# management-interface GigabitEthernet 0/2 allow http ssh

D. Router(config-cp-host)# management-interface GigabitEthernet 0/3.http ssh snmp Router(config-cp-host)# management-interface GigabitEthernet 0/2.http
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 505
Which three actions are advisable when implementing desktop security? (Choose three.)
A. Installing and maintaining anti-virus/anti-malware software
B. Educating users on the danger of opening files and attachments from un-trusted sources
C. Statically defining user password based on information like employee ID number to reduce incidence of forgotten passwords
D. Configuring multiple local network DHCP servers
E. Staying up to date with operating system patches and updates
F. Configuring client firewalls to automatically disable during business hours as not to impact production traffic and applications
Answer: A,B,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 506
Why do you use a disk-image backup to perform forensic investigations?
A. The backup timestamps the files with the date and time during copy operations.
B. The backup creates a bit-level copy of the entire disk.
C. The backup includes areas that are used for the data store.
D. This is a secure way to perform a file copy.
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 507
Which series of steps illustrates the correct flow for incident management?

A. Identify, log, categorize, prioritize, initial diagnosis, escalate, investigate and diagnose, resolve and recover, close
B. Categorize, log, identify, prioritize, initial diagnosis, escalate, investigate and diagnose, resolve and recover, close
C. Identify, log, categorize, prioritize, initial diagnosis, investigate and diagnose, escalate, resolve and recover, close
D. Identify, categorize, prioritize, log, initial diagnosis, escalate, investigate and diagnose, resolve and recover, close
Answer: A