QUESTION NO: 1
Refer to the exhibit. Which Catalyst switch configuration would protect a customer network from possible disruption in the case in which an unauthorized switch is added to the network?

A. Switch0#show running-configuration ! hostname Switch0 ! no spanning-tree optimize bpdu transmission spanning-tree extend system-id ! interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport protected !
B. Switch0#show running-configuration ! hostname Switch0 ! spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default no spanning-tree optimize bpdu transmission spanning-tree extend system-id ! interface FastEthernet0/1 spanning-tree guard root !
C. Switch0#show running-configuration ! hostname Switch0 ! no spanning-tree optimize bpdu transmission spanning-tree extend system-id !

interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode access !
D. Switch0#show running-configuration ! hostname Switch0 ! no spanning-tree optimize bpdu transmission spanning-tree extend system-id ! interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport port-security violation restrict i
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 2
While troubleshooting a network outage, you discover that an employee brought a switch from home into the office to connect additional equipment to the network. In order to increase his speed, he connected this switch to both network ports in his office, resulting in a bridge loop. Which of these can you implement to prevent future occurrences of this issue?
A. RSTP
B. root guard
C. BPDU guard
D. GLBP
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 3
Refer to the exhibit. For the given configuration, on packets leaving the router on interface FastEthernet0/0 that matches the high traffic class, what will the MPLS experimental bit be set to?


A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4 F- 5
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 4
Which tool allows a LAN client to determine which router should be the first hop to a particular remote destination, allowing simplified client configuration and processing without creating a single point of failure?
A. ProxyARP
B. Dynamic Routing Protocol
C. IRDP
D. VRRP
Answer: D QUESTION NO: 5


When implementing MPLS VPNs between CE and PE routers, which of these statements is correct?
A. If using IS-IS as the PE-CE routing protocol, no redistribution is required.
B. If using static routes between the CE and PE routers, no redistribution of other VPN routes is required.
C. If the PE-CE protocol is not BGP, redistribution of other VPN routes from MP-BGP is required
D. If RIP is the routing protocol that is used between the PE-CE routers, no redistribution is required, but any other protocol will require redistribution.
E. If using OSPF or EIGRP as the PE-CE routing protocol, redistribution is not required, but any other protocol or static route will require redistribution.
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 6
You would like to log messages up to the severity level "Notification." Which three of these commands will you need to issue in order to enable syslog messages to be sent to the syslog server at the IP address 10.1.5.5? (Choose three.)
A. logging on
B. logging host 10.1.5.5
C. logging trap notifications
D. loggingsyslog notifications
E. logging monitor notifications F- logging console notifications
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 7
Refer to the exhibit. What is the HSRP state and priority of this interface after HSRP reaches its steady state?


A. Active, Priority 151
B. Active, Priority 201
C. Active, Priority 251
D. Standby, Priority 151
E. Standby, Priority 201 F- Standby, Priority 251

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 8
While your MPLS core is using Cisco routers, the core of a company you have acquired is not. After extending your MPLS VPN networks by integrating the cores, you discover that the end-to-end LPS path between PE routers cannot be established. Which of the following may have caused this problem?
A. the MTUs do not match
B. the BGP protocol versions do not match
C. MPLS is not supported between different vendors
D. MP-BGP is not supported between different vendors
E. you are using Cisco proprietary TDP in your existing core
Answer: E


QUESTION NO: 9
You are troubleshooting an issue, which is causing full-sized packets entering the MPLS cloud to be dropped. You have discovered that one of the switches in the MPLS core is not a Cisco switch, but otherwise the MPLS MTU size is set to 1508 bytes on the routers. Based on this information, which of these may be the reason the packets are being dropped?
A. no switches support oversized packets
B. by definition, the maximum MTU is 1500 bytes C. the switch on your MPLS core that was not produced by Cisco does not support oversized packets

D. in this situation, the MTU setting is irrelevant; in MPLS the maximum acceptable IP packet size is 1492 bytes
E. as MPLS VPN labeling increases the size of the packet by 8 bytes, the IP MTU should have been changed to 1508
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 10
Refer to the exhibit. Which two of these events will be the result of issuing the above command? (Choose two.)

A. A 64-bit IPv4 prefix will be created.
B. The route distinguisher will be used to indicate VPN membership.
C. Extended BGP communities will be used to encode route distinguishers.
D. A 96-bit VPNv4 prefix will be created and propagated across the IP network.
E. The route distinguisher is 64 bits and will be prepended to an existing IPv4 route to make it globally unique.
Answer: D,E
QUESTION NO: 11
Refer to the exhibit. You want to minimize the downtime that results from supervisor engine switchovers on Cisco 6500 Series Switches and Cisco 7600 Series Routers. To achieve this, you are considering deploying a Cisco Nonstop Forwarding with Stateful Switchover solution using OSPF. In the exhibit you can see the output of the show ip ospf neighbor detail command. Which trait of systems using Cisco Nonstop Forwarding with Stateful Switchover and OSPF is shown in the exhibit output and will impact your plan?


A. Stateful Switchover for Cisco Nonstop Forwarding only works with BGP.
B. Stateful Switchover for Cisco Nonstop Forwarding must be configured on all adjacent routers.
C. Cisco Nonstop Forwarding with Stateful Switchover helper mode is not supported on the adjacent router.
D. Cisco Nonstop Forwarding with Stateful Switchover helper mode for OSPF has been standardized and is supported on the adjacent router.

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 12
What can be specified in IP VACLs?
A. IP source only
B. IP destination only
C. protocol and IP source only
D. IP source, IP destination, and ports
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 13
Which two of the following actions must an OSPF NSF-capable router execute after a supervisor engine switchover? (Choose two.)
A. send the graceful restart message
B. exchange the complete routing table
C. re-acquire the link state database content for the network
D. re-learn the available OSPF neighbors with neighbor relationship restart
E. re-learn the available OSPF neighbors without neighbor relationship restart
Answer: C,E QUESTION NO: 14


Cisco Catalyst switches support which three PVLAN port types? (Choose three.)
A. private
B. isolated
C. permanent
D. community
E. non-isolated F- promiscuous
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 15
What is the function of the no switchport Catalyst switch interface configuration command?
A. switches the port from access mode to trunk mode
B. converts the port from physical Layer 2 port to physical Layer 3 port
C. enables the interface for Layer 2 switching
D. disables the interface to prevent traffic flow
E. clears all the configurations on the interface
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 16
What is the purpose of using VPN hardware acceleration equipment?
A. to useWebVPN instead of IPSec
B. to decrease performance and efficiency
C. to offload encryption functions from a router CPU
D. to offload encryptions functions from router memory
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 17
Refer to the exhibit. Which show command would display the information in the exhibit?


A. show policy-map
B. show policy-map high-priority
C. show interfacesfastEthernet 0/1 policy-map
D. show policy-map interfacesfastEthernet 0/1
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 18
You are operating a multi-vendor network and are considering adding redundancy at the access level. Which routing redundancy solution should you implement?
A. Hot Standby Router Protocol
B. Gateway Load Balancing Protocol
C. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol
D. both Gateway Load Balancing Protocol and Hot Standby Router Protocol
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 19
Which two of the following statements are true about HSRP load sharing? (Choose two)
A. It is achieved by using more than one HSRP group
B. It is done in regards to either round robin or weight basis.

C. It is used to offload the active router in a certain HSRP group.
D. Single group HSRP is used to achieve more efficient link utilization.
E. The return traffic is influenced by HSRP load sharing configuration.
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 20
When you enter the interface command auto qos voip cisco-phone on a port at the edge of a network, how does the Cisco Catalyst switch detect if a Cisco IP Phone is connected to the port?
A. by snooping theCoS marking on the incoming frames
B. by using RTP hello messages between the switch port and the Cisco IP Phone
C. by using CDP
D. by using DHCP snooping
E. bysnooping the incoming 802.1 Q VLAN tag

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 21
Which version of NTP was the first to support cryptographic authentication?
A. version 1
B. version 2
C. version 3
D. version 4
E. version 5
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 22
Refer to the exhibit. Which of the following statements is true?


A. BGP NSF awareness is enabled
B. SSO for BGP NSF capability is enabled
C. BGP graceful restart awareness is enabled
D. 10.11.1.187 is configured as an NSF-capable BGP neighbor
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 23
When BGP is used as the PE-CE routing protocol, which of these statements is correct?
A. On PE routers, the CE EBGP neighbors are configured in the VRF context.
B. On the CE router, PE neighbors must be configured in the VRF context on the CE router.
C. On PE routers, the CE IBGP neighbors are configured in the global BGP configuration.
D. When using BGP as the PE-CE routing protocol, only public AS numbers can be used when configuring the BGP neighbor relationships.
E. A separate BGP process must be used on the PE routers for CE routers so that they do not use the same BGP routing process as that used for the PE router's other provider neighbors.
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 24
What is the default severity level of syslog trap messages?
A. debugging (severity=7)
B. informational (severity=6)
C. notifications (severity=5)
D. warnings (severity=4)
E. errors (severity=3)
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 25
Refer to the exhibit. For interface FastEthernet0/0, what will happen to dscp af11 traffic if the queue for class "newclass" reaches a depth of 32?


A. All packets will be dropped.
B. One out of ten packets will be dropped.
C. A random number of packets will be dropped.
D. No packets will be dropped until the queue depth reaches 40.
E. Packets will be dropped according to the exponential weight setting.
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 26
What would the first line in this debug serial interface output indicate?

A. Themineseen HDLC sequence has missed more than three keepalives.
B. Keepalives are being received from the other end of a point-to-point link and this end is not sending them.
C. Theyourseen HDLC sequence number is out of order.
D. The HDLC myseq has missed more than three keepalive messages, the WAN link keepalive activity will not occur, and you should expect to see a Layer 2 issue.
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 27
How are RIP routing contexts implemented in MPLS VPN?
A. RIP does not support routing contexts

B. routing contexts are implemented in a single routing process
C. routing contexts are implemented using multiple routing processes
D. routing contexts are implemented as several instances of a single routing process
E. routing contexts are implemented as a single instance of several routing processes
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 28
Which of these tools should you use to compress VoIP packets on a low-speed Frame Relay circuit?
A. RTP header compression
B. TCP header compression
C. FRF.9 payload compression
D. Predictor payload compression
E. Cisco proprietary payload compression
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 29
Why is it appropriate to use conditional label advertising when deploying MPLS?
A. to make CEF tables smaller
B. to enable label switching on the frame mode interface
C. to restrict MPLS availability to predefined time periods
D. to restrict label switching to a limited number of networks
E. to restrict end users from seeing the routers in the MPLS network
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 30
When HSRP is configured on a network, which two of these items are provided, which are shared between the routers that run HSRP? (Choose two.)
A. TCP-based hello packets
B. the impact of flapping links if timers are too low
C. a shared single interface
D. the ability to track serial interfaces

E. UDP-based hello packets
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 31
Refer to the exhibit. Which two of these statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. PE11 originated label 20.
B. PE11 originated label 21.
C. ThePE11 upstream neighbor originated label 21.
D. The PE11 downstream neighbor originated label 20.
E. PE11 will append label 21 to incoming packets labeled 32. F- PE11 will impose label 20 on incoming packets labeled 32.
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 32
What is required to enable fragmentation of large FTP packets when voice quality on the network is affected by FTP transfers?
A. Configure MLP on the Frame Relay interfaces.
B. Configure TCP header compression on interfaces.
C. Fragmentation is not supported with service internetworking.
D. Configure FRF.12 fragmentation on the Frame Relay interfaces.

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 33
Which command retrieves and displays information about each Cisco product in the form of a UDI?
A. show status
B. show hardware
C. show inventory

D. show environment
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 34
Refer to the exhibit. As shown in the configuration, RIP is being used as the PE-CE routing protocol. Which of these statements is correct?

A. Though preferred, it is not necessary that the RIP parameters be specified in the VRF.
B. Though RIPv2 is specified in the configuration, any version of RIP supports VRFs.
C. On the receiving end, the RIP hop count is copied into a BGP extended community attribute.
D. On the sending end, the RIP hop count is copied into the BGP multi-exit discriminator attribute.
E. Because RIP is being used as the PE-CE routing protocol, the redistribution commands in the configuration are not necessary because redistribution occurs automatically between RIP and BGP.
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 35
Which three of the following steps are mandatory when configuring MPLS on Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)

A. start LDP
B. enable CEF switching
C. configure the MPLS ID
D. disable IP TTL propagation
E. configure conditional label advertising F- enable label switching on frame mode interfaces
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 36
You have just configured HSRP group 10 in your network. Which MAC address will your default gateway use?
A. 0000.5E00.010a
B. 0000.0cac.070a
C. 0000.0c07.ac0a
D. 0000.0c07.0110
E. 0000.5e00.0110

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 37
Refer to the exhibit. A display of class maps for a configuration is shown in the exhibit. What will the class-map "all-traffic" match?

A. all voice traffic
B. all traffic withdscp 18 or dscp 43
C. all traffic withdscp 18 and dscp 43

D. all traffic withip precedence 0 or 1
E. all traffic withip precedence 4 and 5
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 38
Which three configuration steps must be completed for a Cisco router in order to enable local AAA Login Authentication? (Choose three.)
A. enable AAA
B. define a method list
C. define an authorization policy
D. apply the method list to an interface
E. set up a TACACS+ authentication server F- specify the default method list and apply it to the interface
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 39
Your customer recently acquired a smaller competitor. The acquired company is not currently using Cisco routers, so you have connected the two WANs via an authenticated PPP link. After configuring both routers, issuing the show interface sO/0 command on the Cisco router shows the interface to be in the up/down state. Which two of these are possible causes? (Choose two.)
A. MTUs do not match.
B. Bandwidth statements do not match.
C. IP addresses are not in the same subnet.
D. CHAP passwords do not match.
E. CDP versions do not match.
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 40
On a Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series switch, the fail LED is lit for one if its two power supplies. Which command would you use to check on this problem?
A. show environment
B. show module

C. showerrdisable detect
D. show diagnostic content
E. show hardware

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 41
When HSRP is configured on a network, which two of these items are provided, which are shared between the routers that run HSRP? (Choose two.)
A. UDP-based hello packets
B. MAC address
C. TCP-based hello packets
D. IP address
E. shared single interface
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 42
Refer to the exhibit. You have a non-Cisco switch that is not communicating properly while connected to the distribution-layer Cisco switching fabric. Which two best-practice actions can you take to overcome this problem? (Choose two.)

A. Turn off MST (802.1s) on all switches.
B. Turn on MST (802.1s) on all switches.
C. Turn on RSTP (802.1w) on all switches.
D. Turn off RSTP (802.1w) on all switches.

Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 43
What is the maximum number of Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series switches that can be united into a single manageable unit using the Cisco StackWise technology?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 44
Refer to the exhibit. In analyzing the configuration of the router, which three of these statements are correct? (Choose three.)

A. Neighbor 172.16.32.14 will receive VPNv4 routes.
B. Neighbor 172.16.32.15
C. Neighbor 172.16.32.15
D. Neighbor 172.16.32.27
E. Neighbor 172.16.32.27 F- Neighbor 172.16.32.14'
Answer: C,D,E
QUESTION NO: 45

On a Cisco Catalyst switch, which configuration command is used to apply a VACL named "test" to filter the traffic within VLAN100?
A. interfacevlan 100 ip access-group test
B. interface vlan 100 ip access-group test in
C. interface vlan 100 ip access-group test out
D. vlan filter test vlan-list 100
E. vlan access-map test 100

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 46
What are three pieces of information that the Cisco IOS show inventory command displays on a Cisco ISR router? (Choose three.)
A. installed hardware
B. Unique Device Identifier
C. system internal temperature
D. main power supply condition
E. the status of installed hardware F- installed hardware serial numbers
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 47
Referring to the partial Cisco Catalyst switch configuration shown, which two of these statements are correct? (Choose two.)


A. A router connected to the fastethemet 1/4 interface will be able to communicate with hosts connected to interface fastethemet 1/1,1/2, and 1/3.
B. A router connected to the fastethemet 1/4 interface will not be able to communicate with the host connected to interface fastethemet 1/3.
C. Hosts connected to interface fastethemet 1/1 and 1/2 can communicate with each other.
D. Hosts connected to interface fastethemet 1/1,1/2, and 1/3 can communicate with each other.
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 48
Which of these is a prerequisite for and must always run with Cisco NSF?
A. BGP
B. SSO
C. RPR

D. SRM

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 49
When EIGRP is used as the PE-CE routing protocol, which of these statements is correct?
A. Configuration of the VPN is only required on the PE router
B. EIGRP can be used only as the PE-CE routing protocol if the PE and CE routers are in the same AS.
C. When using EIGRP as the PE-CE routing protocol, EIGRP does not require a VRF.
D. Unlike other routing protocols that are used between PE and CE routers, EIGRP supports backdoor links.
E. Other EIGRP AS routes are automatically advertised to the CE router and do not require a redistribution configuration command to be configured.
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 50
Your customer wants to build a network for a financial trading floor that has a requirement for customer. What are the two most critical requirements? (Choose two.)
A. no single point of failure
B. trading database server location
C. redundant applicationservers location
D. deterministic response to all failures
E. determine which protocol to use
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 51
Refer to the exhibit. Users complain that they intermittently lose data and connections to important servers. After investigation, you discover that the 802.1 Q trunk between DSW111 and ASW1 is down. Even though the HSRP group 11 is being serviced by DSW112, you discover that the SVI for VLAN 11 is in the up state on DSW111. Which three Cisco Catalyst IOS commands should you use on DSW111 to find the source of this problem? (Choose three.)


A. showvtp status
B. show interfacesvlan 11
C. show standbyvlan 11 brief
D. show spanning-treevlan 11
E. show interfaces mod/port trunk
Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION NO: 52
When a Cisco router is configured for SSH, it acts as an .
A. SSH client
B. SSH proxy
C. SSH server
D. SSH accelerator
E. SSH and SSL client F- SSH and SSL server

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 53
Which of the following statements about authentication responses and conditions is true? (Choose two.)
A. When a router receives a failure response, it stops querying authentication methods.
B. When a router receives an error response, it stops querying authentication methods.
C. If the router receives a failure response from an authentication method, it queries the next method.
D. The router does not differentiate between failure and error responses; the authentication process is always interrupted.

E. If it receives no response from the authentication method, a router will determine the error condition on its own; the router also has the option to proceed to the next method in a list if configured accordingly.
Answer: A,E
QUESTION NO: 54
Refer to the exhibit. For interface FastEthernet0/0, what will happen to dscp af11 traffic if the queue for class "newclass" reaches a depth of 40?

A. All packets will be dropped
B. One out of ten packets will be dropped.
C. A random number of packets will be dropped.
D. No packets will be dropped until the queue depth reaches 265.
E. Packets will be dropped according to the exponential weight setting.

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 55
In a RSTP implementation, which of the following two link types are used? (Choose two.)
A. shared
B. multipoint
C. designated
D. point-to-point
E. multiaccess non-broadcast

Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 56
Which information is contained in a AAA authentication method list?
A. a sequential list of user authentication methods
B. the setup for the authentication phase on a router
C. a description of what a user can execute on a router.
D. a pointer to the address where a RADIUS server can be located.

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 57
Refer to the exhibit. Analyze the two traceroutes that are displayed. Which of these statements is correct in describing what most likely caused the traceroute differences?

A. Do not fragment has been configured on PE11.
B. MPLS has been disabled on routers P11 and P12.
C. An access list has been created on P11 to block traceroutes from PE11.
D. The nompls ip propgate-ttl local command has been configured on PE11
E. ICMP has been disabled on the intermediary routers between PE11 and PE12.
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 58

How does NTP help you troubleshoot network problems?
A. by setting all network devices to the correct time
B. by calculating the time offset from the GPS or atomic clock
C. by setting necessary time data in the timestamp information
D. by setting the router clock to the default value if the router cannot connect to a time server
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 59
You are considering deploying the Cisco SSL VPN AIM module in a Cisco 1800 Series Router. Which benefit should you expect?
A. to improve performance exclusively for SSL VPN applications
B. to improve performance up to 300% for both IPsec and SSL VPN applications
C. to improve performance for both IPsec and SSL VPN applications with IPsec encryption taking place in hardware
D. to improve performance up to 200% for both IPsec and SSL VPN applications with encryption taking place in hardware
E. to improve performance up to 300% for both IPsec and SSL VPN applications with SSL encryption taking place in hardware
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 60
Refer to the exhibit. Which SSH sessions will the SSH server accept?

A. version 1 only
B. version 2 only
C. versions 1 and 2
D. all versions before 1.99

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 61
You are trying to initiate an SSH connection to a remote router and are getting rejected with an error code of 0 Which of these might be the cause of the error?

A. The routers are using different SSH versions.
B. You are trying to log in using invalid credentials.
C. The RSA key pair is not properly configured on the SSH client.
D. The RSA key pair is not properly configured on the SSH server.
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 62
When an IP packet is Layer 3-switched from a source in one VLAN to a destination in another VLAN, which field in a packet will be rewritten?
A. Layer 2 TTL
B. Layer 3 TTL
C. Layer 3 source address
D. Layer 3 transportprotocol
E. Layer 3 destination address
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 63
Refer to the exhibit. This shows the NetFlow statistics for a router. You are analyzing the traffic pattern and you are interested in the percentage of packets between 32 and 64 bytes in size and the number of flows in progress. Which of these identifies both numbers correctly?

A. 69.4%,4061
B. 24.9%, 980
C. 69.4%, 35
D. 6.94%, 980
E. cannot be determined from this output
Answer: C QUESTION NO: 64



Which one of these class maps was configured to match traffic for CS5?
A. router#show class-map pass Class Map match-all real-time (id 2) Match ip dscp 40
B. router#show class-map forward Class Map match-all forward (id 3) Match ip dscp 18
C. router#show class-map block Class Map match-all block (id 4) Match ip dscp 43
D. router#show class-map real-time Class Map match-all block (id 5) Match ip dscp 16
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 65
Refer to the exhibit. MPLS has been enabled on router PE11. Which of these statements is correct regarding the output display shown in the exhibit?

A. CEF switching is not needed for MPLS operation.
B. CEF switching is only needed to forwardlabeled packets.
C. CEF switching is needed on both ingress and egress interfaces on which MPLS is enabled.
D. Interface-1 eve I CEF switching is needed only on egress interfaces that are sending IP packets on which the egress LSR performs the label imposition process.
E. Interface-leveI CEF switching is needed only on ingress interfaces that are receiving IP packets on which the ingress LSR performs the label imposition process.

Answer: E


QUESTION NO: 66
In MPLS networks, what is the benefit of disabling TTL propagation?
A. to improve MPLS convergence time
B. to improve the IGP convergence time
C. to hide visibility to the core (provider) routers in the MPLS network
D. to provide a visible extension of IP TTL functionality in an MPLS-enabled domain
E. to provide a visible extension of MPLS TTL functionality in a non-MPLS-enabled domain
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 67
How can Cisco NetFlow be used to aid in the operation and troubleshooting of QoS issues?
A. NetFlow can report on the number of traffic matches for each class map in a configured QoS policy configuration.
B. NetFlow records can be used to understand traffic profiles per class of service for data, voice, and video traffic.
C. NetFlow can discover the protocols in use and automatically adjust QoS traffic classes to meet policy-map requirements.
D. NetFlow can be configured to identify voice and video traffic flows and place them into a low-latency queue for expedited processing.
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 68
Refer to the exhibit. Which two of these accurately describe this router's supervisor redundancy status? (Choose two.)


A. both supervisors are active
B. SSO redundancy is being used
C. the second supervisor is unavailable
D. the primary supervisor is unavailable
E. the primary supervisor was reloaded nine seconds ago
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 69
When you issue the logging trap informational command, what happens?
Select the best response.
A. An information trap is sent to the SNMP server.
B. Informational and debug messages are logged to thesyslog server.
C. All messages are sent to the logging host, where selections are made.
D. All messages from emergencies to informational are sent to the logging host.

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 70
What will happen if you issue the redundancy force-switchover command on a Catalyst 6500 Series Switch with redundant supervisor modules?
Select the best response A. reset of the primary supervisor

B. manual switchover from standby to active supervisor
C. manual switchover from active to standby supervisor
D. automatic switchover from active to standby on primary supervisor failure
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 71
During which phase is a proposal developed and delivered?
Select the best response.
A. Prepare
B. Plan
C. Design
D. Operate
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 72
Which of these correctly identifies the six phases of the Cisco Lifecycle Services framework?
Select the best response.
A. Prepare, Plan, Create, Implement, Operate, and Improve
B. Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Operate, and Optimize
C. Prepare, Plan, Design, Apply, Operate, and Manage
D. Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Operate and Manage
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 73
In which phase is a systems acceptance test plan developed and documented?
Select the best response.
A. Implement
B. Design C. Prepare

D. Operate
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 74
In which service component of the optimize phase would you assess the routing and switching system and recommend activities such as optimizing device configurations, capacity planning, or traffic analysis? Select the best response.
A. Change Management
B. Security Assessment
C. Operations Assessment
D. Security Administration
E. Operations Readiness Assessment
F. Technology Assessment
Answer: F


QUESTION NO: 75
Which tool enables easy configuration and monitoring of Cisco ISRs?
Select the best response.
A. Cisco MWAM
B. Cisco SDM
C. Cisco NAC Appliance
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 76
What is a characteristic of the Cisco Validated Design architectural selling approach?
A. This approach separates technologies based on customer buying patterns.
B. This approach integrates solutions by combining technologies that are aligned to customer buying patterns.

C. Although this approach supportsverticalization, it is not aligned to partner programs.
D. Although this approach is aligned to partner programs, it does not supportverticalization.
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 77
Which term represents the mode that is used when the router stores log messages in RAM memory?
A. syslog logging
B. terminal logging
C. buffered logging
D. console logging
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 78
What is a primary objective of the security architecture assessment?
A. document power and UPS availability
B. to integrate routing and switching components
C. create a design specification document
D. document the customer's current and future technology projects
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 79
Which architecture provides a core infrastructure that allows customers to capitalize rapidly on changing business requirements?
A. data center
B. campus
C. branch
D. teleworker
Answer: B QUESTION NO: 80


Which PIN architecture works with DMVPN, GETVPN, and Ethernet?
A. data center
B. teleworker
C. branch
D. campus
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 81
Which protocols does Cisco NSF support?
A. IS-IS, EIGRP, SSO, BGP
B. ISSU, OSPF, IS-IS
C. IETF, OSPF, ISSU
D. EIGRP, BGP, OSPF, IS-IS
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 82
Why is there no need to configure complex overlay network topologies when using Cisco WAAS?
A. remote scheduling of software distribution
B. comprehensive logs, reports, and graphs
C. automatic discovery of Cisco WAEs
D. content pre-positioning
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 83
What is the final step that should take place when characterizing an existing network?
A. Form an impression about the network.
B. Prepare and add to the network description.
C. Use traffic analysis to augment organizational input.
D. Perform a network audit.

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 84
What are the three main parts of a syslog message? (Choose three.)
A. severity level
B. facility
C. log message name
D. time stamp
E. error codes
F. access privilege
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 85
What is the first step of the core baselining process?
A. Verify that the SNMP MIB is supported in the relevant core device.
B. Implement monitoring using SNMP or RMON.
C. Poll and record specific SNMP MIB objects from the device.
D. Implement threshold monitoring using RMON.
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 86
Which switching engine enables the access control list lookup to be committed to hardware?
A. IETF
B. PFC
C. ASIC
D. TCAM
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 87
What are the characteristics of the process of documenting the layers of an existing network?

A. begins with gathering organizational input that may be inaccurate
B. begins with gathering organizational input that does not need to be supplemented by a network audit
C. requires a network audit to support some upgrade decisions
D. requires a network audit to support any network restructuring
E. provides reliable input for verifying network consistency
F. does not provide reliable input for designing changes
Answer: A,D,E
QUESTION NO: 88
Which tool employs an intuitive GUI to apply common services across Cisco switches, routers, and access points?
A. Cisco VAM2+
B. Cisco Network Assistant
C. Cisco SDM
D. Cisco IPS

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 89
What are the three specific characteristics of the Cisco SAN solution for the data center? (Choose three.)
A. It provides multiprotocol support.
B. It provides improved availability, strong security, and business continuance measures.
C. It enables you to connectcisco vsan technology and das technology. D- it reduces cost and complexity by providing an easy transition to evolving technologies.
E. It allows you to create separate networks on the vsan.
F. It allows you to migrate to new technologies without a complete equipment upgrade.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 90
What is the correct sequence of commands to configure and verify SRM with SSO redundancy?
A. modesso, redundancy, show redundancy states

B. show redundancy states, modesso, redundancy
C. redundancy, modesso, show redundancy states
D. show redundancy states, redundancy, modesso
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 91
Which description best characterizes the Cisco mobility solution?
A. provides high-level integrated security from the wireless access point to the client and automatically encrypts voice and data in transit
B. authenticates users and devices so that it is impossible for a rogue device to be connected to the network
C. allows you to centralize management, automate repetitive tasks, and provision IP services easily
D. centralizes your infrastructure and allows you to share resources more effectively by combining separate data centers into an interconnected SAN
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 92
Compared to the traditional Layer 2 and Layer 3 system, how does the Cisco Catalyst 6500 VSS 1440 simplify the network?
A. provides loop-free technology
B. manages additional routing peers
C. provides HSRPWRRP
D. manages two nodes and configuration
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 93
Which three statements correctly describe the Cisco Validated Designs program? (Choose three.)
A. includes three design levels
B. incorporates products and technologies into enterprise, service provider, and commercial systems
C. extends the value of designs through a sustained development plan

D. does not factor customer input design process
E. facilitates faster and more reliable customer deployments
F. incorporates a narrow range of technologies and products
Answer: B,C,E
QUESTION NO: 94
Which two benefits are provided when Cisco enterprise solutions are employed across all places in the network? (Choose two.)
A. regular upgrade process
B. multivendorsupport
C. cost savings
D. product variety
E. well-tested interoperability
Answer: C,E

QUESTION NO: 95
What are two characteristics of the relationship between the Cisco PIN architecture and Cisco Validated Designs? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco is focusing on Cisco Validated Designs as a means to driving integrated networks.
B. Cisco is focusing on the PIN architecture as a means to driving integrated networks.
C. The Cisco PIN architecture is a critical mechanism for supporting integrated markets because it can be implemented quickly.
D. The Cisco Validated Designs program provides critical mechanisms for supporting integrated markets because the mechanisms can be implemented quickly.
E. Cisco Validated Designs can be implemented quickly without customer input.
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 96
Which Cisco solution was developed to let you create separate networks on one SAN; thus providing you with improved availability, security, and backup?
A. Cisco Direct Attached Storage
B. Cisco Direct Storage Area Network

C. Cisco Virtual Storage Area Network
D. Cisco Virtual Attached Storage Network

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 97
What are two characteristics of the Cisco Validated Design program? (Choose two.)
A. facilitates customer deployments that are less reliable
B. facilitates customer deployments that are more predictable
C. separates products and technologies into individual portfolios
D. incorporates products and technologies into a broad portfolio
E. strives to protect access to design documentation
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 98
Which dedicated VPN acceleration module for the Cisco 7200 and 7300 Series Routers supports the latest encryption standards?
A. Cisco Network Assistant
B. Cisco IPS
C. AES
D. Cisco VAM2+

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 99
Which service component would you typically perform prior to the handover to the customer's operations organization and involves running system operations to ensure that the solution is ready for production?
A. Systems Integration
B. Acceptance Testing
C. Skill Assessment
D. Project Close Out
E. Security Check

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 100
Which two differentiators make RSTP the preferred protocol for preventing Layer 2 loops in a switched network environment? (Choose two.)
A. Features such asUplinkFast and BackboneFast are compatible with RSTP.
B. An RSTP that is based on Cisco products generally performs better than the Cisco proprietary
802.1 D enhancements.
C. Cisco proprietary enhancements are not transparent.
D. Information about port roles is sent to all switches.
E. RSTPs that are based on Cisco products require no additional configuration.
Answer: B,E
QUESTION NO: 101
What is the result when all Cisco Enterprise Campus Architecture components are designed with interoperability in mind?
A. high availability
B. strengthened security
C. improved connectivity options
D. continuity of service
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 102
What are two outcomes of deploying virtual SANs? (Choose two.)
A. increased administration
B. improved availability
C. reduced backup
D. increased security
E. greater storage demand
Answer: B,D QUESTION NO: 103


Which component of the Cisco 800, 1800, 2800, and 3800 Series ISRs can be used to enable important security and storage capabilities?
A. onboard USB 1.1 ports
B. inlinePoE
C. Ethernet backup port
D. BRI
Answer: A