QUESTION NO: 1
Which three statements are correct with regard to the IEEE 802.1Q standard? (Choose three.)
A. protocol uses point-to-point connectivity
B. the packet is encapsulated with a 26 byte header and a 4 byte FCS
C. the IEEE 802.1Q frame format adds a 4 byte field toa Ethernet frame
D. protocol uses point-to-multipoint connectivity
E. the IEEE 802.1Q frame uses multicast destination of 0x01-00-0c-00-00
F. the IEEE 802.1Q frame retains the original MAC destination address
Answer: A,C,F
QUESTION NO: 2 CORRECT TEXT
Lab



QUESTION NO: 3
What are three characteristics of RIPv2? (Choose three.)
A. does not support variable-length subnet mask by default
B. does not supportdiscontiguous networks by default
C. multicasts updates to 224.0.0.9

D. broadcasts updates
E. supportsdiscontiguous networks by default
F. supports variable-length subnet mask by default
Answer: B,C,F
QUESTION NO: 4
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is trying to connect to the console port of Sw2. What authentication process will the switch go through?

A. Authentication will fail because an IP address has not been specified for theSmartPort database.
B. The switch will contact theSmartPort database. If the SmartPort database is unreachable, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the enable secret password.
C. The switch will attempt to authenticate using the enable secret password. If this fails, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the passwordgoaway.
D. Authentication will fail becauseSmartPort has not been enabled.
E. The switch will contact theSmartPort database. If the SmartPort database is unreachable, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the local database.
F. The switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the local database.


Answer: F


QUESTION NO: 5
RTA(config)# router eigrp 2000 RTA(config-router)# network 2.0.0.0RTA(config-router)# exitRTA(config)# interface serial 2RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 2000 2.1.0.0 255.255.0.0Examine the exhibit. How many routes will RTB have with this configuration assuming there is no additional connectivity to RTB at this time?

A. 3
B. 2
C. 0
D. 1
E. 4
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 6
Which three characteristics apply to IS-IS but not to OSPF? (Choose three.)
A. uses a DIS and a backup DIS to present thepsuedo-node on the LAN
B. encapsulates PDUs directly into a data-link frame
C. uses a default IOS metric of 10 on each interface
D. uses stubby areas to improve network scalability
E. uses an on-demand circuit to reduce the hello and LSA flooding across switched WAN links, such as ISDN

F. runs PRC (Partial Route Calculations) to calculate IPreachability information
Answer: B,C,F
QUESTION NO: 7
Based on the network diagram and routing table output in the exhibit, which of these statements is true?

A. AlthoughinterVLAN routing is not enabled, both workstations will have connectivity to each other.
B. AlthoughinterVLAN routing is enabled, the workstations will not have connectivity to each other.
C. InterVLAN routing will not occur since no routing protocol has been configured.
D. InterVLAN routing has been configured properly, and the workstations have connectivity to each other.

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 8

What are two possible causes for EIGRP Stuck-In-Active routes? (Choose two.)
A. The neighboring router starts receiving route updates from this router.
B. The neighboring router stops receiving ACK packets from this router.
C. A failure causes traffic on a link between two neighboring routers to flow in only one direction (unidirectional link).
D. Some query or reply packets are lost between the routers.
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 9
Which protocol inserts a four byte tag into the Ethernet frame and recalculates CRC value?
A. DTP
B. VTP
C. ISL
D. 802.1Q

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 10
During the redistribution process configured on RTA, some of the EIGRP routes, such as 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.2.2.0/24, are not being redistributed into the OSPF routing domain. Which two items could be a solution to this problem? (Choose two.)

A. Configure the redistribute command under routereigrp 1 instead.
B. Add the subnets option to the redistribute command.
C. Change the metric-type to 2 in the redistribute command.

D. Change the EIGRP AS number from 100 to 1 in the redistribute command.
E. Change the metric to an EIGRP compatible metric value (bandwidth, delay, reliability, load, MTUs) in the redistribute command.
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 11
What administrative distance is given to EIGRP summary routes?
A. 0
B. 90
C. 170
D. 95
E. 5
F. 1

Answer: E


QUESTION NO: 12
When building an IP multicast domain using PIM which mode assumes that other routers do not want to forward multicast packets for the group?
A. IGMP snooping
B. PIM-DM
C. PIM-SM
D. CGMP
E. PIM-RP
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 13
By default, which statement is correct when an IEEE 802.1Q trunk port receives an untagged frame?
A. The frame is considered in the native VLAN and forwarded to the ports associated with that VLAN.
B. The frame is encapsulated and tagged as in the native VLAN.
C. The frame is broadcast on all ports regardless of VLAN association.

D. The frame is dropped.
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 14
A medium-sized network with a redundant topology that uses core and access switches is experiencing intermittent end-station accessibility. The root bridge is on one of the core switches. It is determined that the problem occurs during STP convergence and that accessibility issues depend on the STP state of the individual switch port. What is the best way to decrease STP convergence time in this situation?
A. EnableUplinkFast on the wiring closet switches at the edge of the network.
B. EnablePortFast on the core switches to accelerate the choice of a new root port.
C. EnablePortFast on all IOS based switches that have been configured for bridge priority.
D. EnableUplinkFast on the VLAN that is having the most accessibility problems.
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 15
Which three statements are true about the Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)? (Choose three.)
A. IGMP is a multicast routing protocol that makes packet-forwarding decisions independent of other routing protocols such as EIGRP.
B. IGMP version 3 enables a multicast receiving host to specify to the router which sources it should forward traffic from.
C. There are three IGMP modes: dense mode, sparse mode, and sparse-dense mode.
D. IGMP is used to register individual hosts with a multicast group.
E. IGMP snooping runs on Layer 3 routers.
F. IGMP messages are IPdatagrams with a protocol value of 2, destination address of 224.0.0.2, and a TTL value of 1.
Answer: B,D,F
QUESTION NO: 16
Refer to the exhibit. Why does the trust state of interface FastEthernet 0/3 show "not trusted"?


A. There is not a Cisco Phone attached to the interface.
B. DSCP map needs to be configured for VOIP.
C. ToS has not been configured.
D. ToS has been misconfigured.
E. The commandmls qos needs to be turned on in global configuration mode.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 17

Which IS-IS NET represents a locally administered private address?
A. 39.0040.0010.0c99.1112.00
B. 45.0004.0000.0d35.4554.00
C. 47.0010.0000.0a11.3564.00
D. 49.0001.0000.0c12.3456.00
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 18
What is correct about the BGP synchronization command? (Choose two.)
A. If it is turned ON, a prefix learned from IBGP neighbor is valid only if a non-bgp (IGP) route exists for that prefix.
B. Synchronization can be turned off if all the transit routers in an Autonomous system running full mesh IBGP.
C. Synchronization is necessary when peering with an EBGP neighbor.
D. Synchronization must be enabled when implementing a multi-homed BGP connection to multiple ISPs.
E. Synchronization improves BGP routing convergence.
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 19
Router E is configured with the EIGRP variance 2 command. What path will Router E take to reach Router A?


A. only E-C-A
B. only E-B-A
C. both E-B-A and E-C-A
D. only E-D-A
E. all available paths.
F. both E-B-A and E-D-A

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 20
Refer to the exhibit. The administrator of this internetwork needs to provide subnets with a /30 mask for the three WAN links connecting RTA to RTB, RTC, and RTD. The address ranges allocated for these connections are within the 172.16.14.0/27 address range. Which three subnets can be used for the WAN links?

A. 172.16.14.68/30172.16.14.72/30172.16.14.76/30
B. 172.16.14.100/30172.16.14.104/30172.16.14.108/30
C. 172.16.14.132/30172.16.14.136/30172.16.14.140/30
D. 172.16.14.36/30172.16.14.40/30172.16.14.44/30
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 21
What does the following command accomplish? Switch(config-mst)#instance 10 vlan 11-12

A. starts two instances of MST, one instance forvlan 11 and another instance for vlan 12
B. enablesvlan 11 and vlan 12 to be part of the MST region 10
C. creates a Common Spanning Tree (CST) instance of 10 forvlan 11 and vlan 12
D. mapsvlan 11 and vlan 12 to the MST instance of 10
E. enables a PVST+ instance of 10 forvlan 11 and vlan 12
F. creates an Internal Spanning Tree (IST) instance of 10 forvlan 11 and vlan 12
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 22
Given the following partial configuration for Router A:interface serial 0ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0encapsulation frame-relayip ospf network point-to-multipointrouter ospf 7network
10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. DR/BDR elections do not take place.
B. OSPF neighbor statements are not necessary.
C. The area 0 NBMA cloud is configured as more than one subnet.
D. The router is restricted to a hub and spoke topology.
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 23
Which two statements are true about RIP? (Choose two.)
A. By default, RIP interfaces will only accept and send version 1 updates.
B. When configured with the version 2 command, RIP interfaces will accept version 1 and 2 updates, but will only send version 2 updates.
C. When configured with the version 2 command, RIP interfaces will only accept version 2 updates, but will send version 1 and version 2 updates.
D. By default, RIP interfaces will accept version 1 and 2 updates, but will only send version 1 updates.
E. When configured with the version 1 command, RIP interfaces will only accept and send version 1 updates.
F. When configured with the version 1 command, RIP interfaces will accept version 1 and 2 updates, but will only send version 1 updates.
Answer: D,E QUESTION NO: 24



What is the effect of the following configuration commands? RTB(config)#router rip RTB(config-router)#version 2 RTB(config-router)#no auto-summary
A. subnets are summarized at the network boundary
B. subnets are advertised across network boundaries
C. subnet mask information is not passed in the routing updates
D. subnets are madediscontiguous
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 25
Which MST configuration statement is correct?
A. MST configurations can be propagated to other switches using VTP.
B. After MST is configured on a switch, PVST+ operations will also be enabled by default.
C. MST configurations only need to be manually configured on the Root Bridge.
D. MST configurations must be manually configured on each switch within the MST region.
E. MST configurations are entered using the VLAN Database mode on Cisco Catalyst switches.
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 26
Which two statements are true about Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) snooping? (Choose two.)
A. IGMP snooping is an IP multicast constraining mechanism for Layer 2 switches.
B. IGMP snooping examines IGMP join/leave messages so that multicast traffic is forwarded only to hosts that sent an IGMP message toward the router.
C. IGMP snooping and Cisco Group Membership Protocol (CGMP) were developed to help Layer 3 switches make intelligent forwarding decisions on their own.
D. IGMP snooping and Cisco Group Membership Protocol (CGMP) can be used simultaneously on a switch.
E. IGMP snooping is enabled with theip multicast-routing global configuration command.
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 27

Observe the above diagram. Spanning tree is enabled on all devices. Currently either Switch B or C can serve as the root should Switch A fail. A client recently connected Device D, a PC running switching application software, to Switch C port P3/3. The administrator would like to configure Root Guard to ensure that Device D does not assume the role of root. All other parameters must stay the same. On which interface(s) must Root Guard be enabled?

A. P1/2
B. P3/3
C. P1/2, P2/2 and P3/3
D. P1/1 and P1/2
E. P2/2
F. P1/2 and P2/2
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 28
Why should iBGP sessions be fully meshed within a Transit AS?
A. Routes learned viaeBGP are never propagated to other iBGP peers.
B. Routes learned viaiBGP are never propagated to other eBGP peers.
C. BGP requires redundant TCP sessions betweeniBGP peers.
D. A full mesh allows for optimal routing within the Transit AS.
E. Routes learned viaiBGP are never propagated to other iBGP peers.
Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 29
Given the above diagram, which command will summarize area 15?


A. on all routers in area 15 in the OSPFconfig-router mode: area 15 range 10.10.12.0
255.255.248.0
B. on the ABR S0/0 interface: area 15 range 10.10.8.0 255.255.252.0
C. on the ABR in the OSPFconfig-router mode: summary-address 10.10.12.0 255.255.252.0
D. on the ABR in the OSPFconfig-router mode: area 15 range 10.10.12.0 255.255.252.0
E. on the ABR S0/0 interface: summary-address 10.10.8.0 255.255.248.0
F. on the ABR E0/0 interface: area 15 range 10.10.8.0 255.255.248.0
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 30
Refer to the exhibit. BGP sessions are established between all autonomous systems. AS 100 receives updates about network 200.200.200.0/24 from routers R2, R3, R4, and R5 with different MED values. Which router will be chosen as a next hop to reach the network 200.200.200.0/24 if all other attributes are the same?


A. R3
B. R4
C. R2
D. R5
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 31
Given the above partial configuration, which two statements are true about VLAN traffic? (Choose two.)

A. VLANs 6-10 have a port priority of 128 on fa0/10.
B. VLANs 1-10 are configured to load share between fa0/10 and fa0/12.
C. VLANs 1-5 will be blocked if fa0/10 goes down.
D. VLANs 6-10 will use fa0/10 as a backup only.
E. VLANs 1-5 will use fa0/10 as a backup only.
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 32
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output of a debug ip mrouting command, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)


A. The reverse path forwarding (RPF) for the route 224.2.0.1 failed to find the interface on which the multicast packet was received.
B. Multicast route to 10.16.0.0/16 was added to themroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router.
C. The route to 224.69.15.0/24 will be out Ethernet 0.
D. This router received an IGMP host report from a group member or a PIM join message.
E. Multicast route to 224.69.15.0/24 was added to themroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router.
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 33
Which two methods advertise internal networks to external ISPs via BGP? (Choose two.)
A. disabling synchronization
B. using aggregate routes
C. forcing the next-hop address
D. defining routes via the network statement
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 34
Which four items must match in an OSPF hello packet in order for two routers to become OSPF neighbors? (Choose four.)
A. address of DR/BDR
B. neighbors
C. authentication password
D. stub area flag
E. area ID
F. hello/dead intervals

Answer: C,D,E,F

QUESTION NO: 35
Refer to the show spanning-tree mst configuration output shown in the exhibit. What should be changed in the configuration of the switch SW_2 in order for it to participate in the same MST region?

A. Switch SW_2 must be configured with a different MST name.
B. Switch SW_2 must be configured with a different VLAN range.
C. Switch SW_2 must be configured with the revision number of 1.
D. Switch SW_2 must be configured with an instance number of 2.

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 36
Which is a valid multicast MAC address?
A. 00-00-00-FA-11-67
B. 00-01-E0-A8-B2-C1
C. FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF
D. 01-00-E0-56-AE-3C
E. 01-00-5E-0A-08-CF
Answer: E


QUESTION NO: 37
Which three items are configured in MST configuration submode? (Choose three.)
A. PVST+ instance map
B. CST instance map
C. configuration revision number
D. IST STP BPDU hello timer E. region name

F. VLAN instance map
Answer: C,E,F
QUESTION NO: 38
A network administrator is troubleshooting a redistribution of OSPF routes into EIGRP. Given the exhibited commands, which statement is true?

A. Redistributed routes will maintain their original OSPF routing metric.
B. Redistributed routes will have an external type of 1 and a metric of 1.
C. Redistributed routes will have a default metric of 0 but will be treated as unreachable and not advertised.
D. Redistributed routes will have an external type of 2 and a metric of 20.
E. Redistributed routes will have a default metric of 0 and will be treated as reachable and advertised.

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 39
When an IPv6 enabled host boots, it sends a router solicitation (RS) message. An IPv6 router responds with a router advertisement (RA). Which two items are contained in the RA? (Choose two.)
A. lifetime of the prefix
B. keepalive timers
C. IPv6 address for the host
D. prefixes for the link
E. request for the local host IP address
F. any route advertisements it has received
Answer: A,D QUESTION NO: 40


Which router redundancy protocol cannot be configured for interface tracking?
A. GLBP
B. VRRP
C. RPR
D. RPR+
E. HSRP
F. SLB
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 41
How many update packets would a RIPv2 router send to advertise 77 routes?
A. four update packets
B. one update packet
C. two update packets
D. six update packets
E. three update packets
F. five update packets
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 42
Which message type was added to IGMPv2?
A. leave report
B. membership report
C. heartbeat
D. join request
E. status report
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 43

Observe the diagram. RTC is the hub router and RTA and RTB are the spokes. There are no virtual circuits between the spoke locations. What is needed to successfully route traffic to the 11.11.11.0/24 network from RTA?

A. The neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self command on RTB.
B. The neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self command on RTA.
C. The neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self command on RTC.
D. Nothing is required. This is the default behavior on this topology.
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 44
By default, all VLANs will belong to which MST instance when using Multiple STP?
A. the last MST instance configured
B. MST00
C. MST01
D. none
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 45
Router RTA is configured as follows:RTA (config)#router ripRTA(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0RTA(config-router)#distribute-list 44 in interface BRI0 RTA(config-router)#exitRTA(config)#access-list 44 deny 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255RTA(config)#access-list 44

permit anyWhat are the effects of this RIP configuration on router RTA? (Choose two.)

A. user traffic from the 172.16.1.0 network is denied by access-list 44
B. the routing table on router RTA will be updated with the route to router RTW
C. the route to network 172.16.1.0 will not be entered into the routing table on router RTA
D. no routing updates will be sent from router RTA on interface BRI0 to router RTX
E. router RTA will not advertise the 10.0.0.0 network to router RTX
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 46
How many update packets would a RIPv2 router send to advertise 77 routes?
A. six update packets
B. four update packets
C. five update packets
D. three update packets
E. two update packets
F. one update packet
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 47
Based on the exhibited output, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)


A. 40512000 is the advertised distance (AD) via 192.168.1.66 to reach the 192.168.1.48/28 prefix.
B. R1 will load balance between three paths to reach the 192.168.1.48/28 prefix because all three paths have the same advertised distance (AD) of 40512000.
C. R1 is in AS 200.
D. All the routes are in the passive mode because R1 is in the query process for those routes.
E. The best path for R1 to reach the 192.168.1.48/28 prefix is via 192.168.1.66.
F. All the routes are in the passive mode because these routes are in the hold-down state.
Answer: A,C,E
QUESTION NO: 48
Which three statements are true regarding the above diagram? (Choose three.)

A. Only VLANs 1-1001 will travel across the trunk link.

B. A trunk link will be formed.
C. DTP packets are sent from Switch B.
D. The native VLAN for Switch B isvlan 1.
E. DTP is not running on Switch A.
Answer: B,C,D

QUESTION NO: 49
The network operations center has received a call stating that users in VLAN 107 are unable to access resources through Router 1. From the information contained in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?

A. spanning tree is not enabled on VLAN 107
B. VTP is pruning VLAN 107
C. VLAN 107 is not configured on the trunk
D. VLAN 107 does not exist on switch A.


Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 50 CORRECT TEXT
Look at the picture.


QUESTION NO: 51
Which BGP attribute will not be advertised in routing updates to its neighboring routers?
A. weight
B. origin
C. local preference
D. AS_path
E. next hop
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 52
Which three statements are true about the Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)? (Choose three.)

A. IGMP messages are IPdatagrams with a protocol value of 2, destination address of 224.0.0.2, and a TTL value of 1.
B. IGMP is used to register individual hosts with a multicast group.
C. IGMP version 3 enables a multicast receiving host to specify to the router which sources it should forward traffic from.
D. IGMP is a multicast routing protocol that makes packet-forwarding decisions independent of other routing protocols such as EIGRP.
E. There are three IGMP modes: dense mode, sparse mode, and sparse-dense mode.
F. IGMP snooping runs on Layer 3 routers.
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 53
What are three disadvantages of a router-on-a-stick configuration for InterVLAN routing? (Choose three.)
A. The router becomes a single point of failure for the network.
B. Additional overhead on the router can occur.
C. Routers will not route STP BPDUs.
D. NetFlow Switching is required for InterVLAN accounting.
E. There is a possibility of inadequate bandwidth for each VLAN.
F. InterVLAN routing cannot be filtered by the router.
Answer: A,B,E


QUESTION NO: 54
Which statement is true about IBGP routers?
A. They can be in a different AS.
B. They do not need to be directly connected.
C. They must be directly connected.
D. They must be fully meshed.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 55 CORRECT TEXT
Look at the picture.



QUESTION NO: 56 CORRECT TEXT
Look at the picture.



QUESTION NO: 57
All routers in the diagram are configured with EIGRP. If RTB and RTC fail, which action will RTA take with respect to the HQ network?

A. RTA will automatically route packets via RTD to the HQ network.
B. RTA will go into the active state for all routes.
C. RTA will place the route via RTD into the hold down state.
D. RTA will go into the active state for the route to HQ network.
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 58
Which three statements are true about EIGRP operation? (Choose three.)
A. The summary route remains in the route table, even if there are no more specific routes to the network.
B. The maximum metric for the specific routes is used as the metric for the summary route.
C. Automatic summarization across major network boundaries is enabled by default.
D. When summarization is configured, the router will also create a route to null 0.
E. Summarization is configured on a per-interface level.
Answer: C,D,E
QUESTION NO: 59
Which statement describes Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) mode 'desirable'?

A. The interface is put into permanenttrunking mode but prevented from generating DTP frames.
B. The interface is put into a passive mode, waiting to convert the link to a trunk link.
C. The interface is put into permanenttrunking mode and negotiates to convert the link into a trunk link.
D. The interface actively attempts to convert the link to a trunk link.
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 60 CORRECT TEXT
Look at the picture.


QUESTION NO: 61
In the use of 802.1X access control, which three protocols are allowed through the switch port before authentication takes place? (Choose three.)
A. EAP-over-LAN
B. EAP MD5
C. TACACS+
D. CDP
E. protocols not filtered by an ACL
F. STP

Answer: A,D,F
QUESTION NO: 62
Given the following configuration:router bgp 6500redistribute staticip route 164.20.0.0 255.255.0.0 null 0Which statement is true?
A. It allows BGP to advertise the 164.20.0.0 /16 network.
B. It results in all traffic for all subnets of 172.16.0.0 being dropped at this router.
C. Cisco prefers that you use the aggregate-address command to distribute IGP routes into BGP.
D. Cisco prefers this method of distributing IGP routes into BGP over using the network command.

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 63
Which command would display OSPF parameters such as filters, default metric, maximum paths, and number of areas configured on a router?
A. showip protocol
B. showip route
C. showip ospf
D. showip ospf interface
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 64
How many update packets would a RIPv2 router send to advertise 77 routes?
A. four update packets
B. six update packets
C. one update packet
D. five update packets
E. two update packets
F. three update packets
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 65

Refer to the exhibit. Routers R2, R3, R4, and R5 have OSPF enabled. What should be configured on the routers in area 1 to ensure that all default summary routes and redistributed EIGRP routes will be forwarded from R6 to area 1, and only a default route for all other OSPF routes will be forwarded from R5 to area 1.

A. R5(config-router)# area 1 stubR6(config-router)# area 1 stub
B. R5(config-router)# area 1 stub no-summaryR6(config-router)# area 1 stub
C. R5(config-router)# area 1 nssa R6(config-router)# area 1 nssa
D. R5(config-router)# area 1 nssa no-summaryR6(config-router)# area 1 nssa
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 66
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output of a debug ip mrouting command, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Multicast route to 224.69.15.0/24 was added to themroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router.
B. Multicast route to 10.16.0.0/16 was added to themroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router.
C. This router received an IGMP host report from a group member or a PIM join message.
D. The route to 224.69.15.0/24 will be out Ethernet 0.
E. The reverse path forwarding (RPF) for the route 224.2.0.1 failed to find the interface on which the multicast packet was received.

Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 67
Examine the router output above. Which two items are correct? (Choose two.)

A. Router A will assume the active state if its priority is the highest.
B. The local IP address of Router A is 10.1.0.6.
C. When Ethernet 0/3 ofRouterA comes back up, the priority will become 105.
D. If Ethernet 0/2 goes down, the standby router will take over.
E. The local IP address of Router A is 10.1.0.20.
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 68
In the use of 802.1X access control, which three protocols are allowed through the switch port before authentication takes place? (Choose three.)
A. EAP-over-LAN
B. CDP
C. protocols not filtered by an ACL
D. TACACS+
E. STP
F. EAP MD5
Answer: A,B,E
QUESTION NO: 69

Which three characteristics apply to IS-IS but not to OSPF? (Choose three.)
A. uses a DIS and a backup DIS to present thepsuedo-node on the LAN
B. uses a default IOS metric of 10 on each interface
C. uses an on-demand circuit to reduce the hello and LSA flooding across switched WAN links, such as ISDN
D. uses stubby areas to improve network scalability
E. runs PRC (Partial Route Calculations) to calculate IPreachability information
F. encapsulates PDUs directly into a data-link frame
Answer: B,E,F

QUESTION NO: 70
A network administrator is troubleshooting a redistribution of RIP routes into OSPF. Given the exhibited configuration commands, which statement is true?

A. Redistributed routes will be tagged as external type 2 (E2) with a metric of 20.
B. Redistributed routes will be tagged as external type 1 (E1) with a metric of 30.
C. Redistributed routes will have a default metric of 0 and will be treated as unreachable and not advertised.
D. Redistributed routes will maintain their original RIP routing metric.
E. Redistributed routes will have a default metric of 0 but will not be treated as reachable and will be advertised.

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 71
The Dev-1 and Dev-3 routers are OSPF neighbors over the Ethernet 0/0 connection. Based on the show ip ospf neighbor output from the Dev-1 and Dev-3 routers, which statement is true?


A. Dev-1 is the DR because it has a higher OSPF router priority.
B. Both Dev-1 and Dev-3 are using the default OSPF router priority.
C. Dev-3 is the DR because it has a lower OSPF router ID.
D. Dev-1 is the DR because it has a lower OSPF router ID.
E. Dev-3 is the DR because it has a higher OSPF router priority.
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 72
Refer to the diagram above. Policy-based routing is enabled for the incoming traffic on RTB. Given the above configuration, how is the packet that comes from 172.16.6.10 routed?


A. The packet is routed through the normal destination-based routing process.
B. The packet is sent to RTC.
C. The packet is denied access and is dropped.
D. The packet is sent back to RTA.
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 73
Which three IPv6 notations represent the same address? (Choose three.)
A. 2031:0:130F:0:0:09C0:876A:130B
B. 2031::130F:0::9C0:876A:130B
C. 2031:0:130F:::9C0:876A:130B
D. 2031:0000:130F:0000:0000:09C0:876A:130B E. 2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B

F. 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B
Answer: A,D,F
QUESTION NO: 74
Which specification is a companion to the IEEE 802.1w Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) algorithm allowing the algorithm to use multiple spanning-trees?
A. Cisco PVST+
B. IEEE 802.1d (STP)
C. IEEE 802.1Q (CST)
D. IEEE 802.1s (MST)
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 75
Which two statements are true concerning IPv6? (Choose two.)
A. IPSec is mandatory and built into IPv6.
B. Mobile IP is built into IPv6 by default.
C. Like IPv4, IPv6 broadcasts are sent to all nodes on a LAN segment.
D. The leading zeros in an address format are mandatory.
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 76
Which three items are configured in MST configuration submode? (Choose three.)
A. IST STP BPDU hello timer
B. VLAN instance map
C. configuration revision number
D. CST instance map
E. region name
F. PVST+ instance map
Answer: B,C,E QUESTION NO: 77


Refer to the exhibit and the output on R1. What is the OSPF area type configured for area 1?

A. totally stubby area
B. NSSA
C. stub area
D. NSSA totally stubby area
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 78
Which three statements are correct about the differences in IS-IS and OSPF? (Choose three.)
A. IS-IS LSP contains TLV fields and OSPF LSU contains the LSAs.
B. OSPF has more area types than does IS-IS.
C. IS-IS is more CPU-intensive than is OSPF.
D. For greater fine tuning there are more IS-IS timers.
E. New additions to the protocol are easily implemented in OSPF but not with IS-IS.
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 79
The original frame is encapsulated and an additional header is added before the frame is carried over a trunk link. At the receiving end, the header is removed and the frame is forwarded to the assigned VLAN. This describes which technology?

A. ISL
B. MPLS
C. IEEE 802.1Q
D. DISL
E. DTP

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 80
What is periodically sent by a DIS on a LAN to ensure that all adjacent neighbors' IS-IS link-state databases are synchronized?
A. database description packet (DDP)
B. link-state summary
C. database query
D. hello
E. partial SNP (PSNP)
F. complete SNP (CSNP)
Answer: F


QUESTION NO: 81
What is the purpose of a rendezvous point (RP)?
A. used in PIM dense mode to create a database of all multicast sources
B. acts as a meeting place for sources and receivers of multicast traffic
C. acts as the designated router for a broadcast segment when multicast routing is enabled
D. used in PIM dense and sparse mode to create a database of all multicast sources
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 82
In the hardware address 0000.0c07.ac0a what does 07.ac represent?
A. HSRP well-known virtual MAC address
B. HSRP group number
C. HSRP well-known physical MAC address
D. vendor code

E. HSRP router number
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 83
Based on the exhibited output, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. The router at 10.1.1.2 is configured with theip default-network 0.0.0.0 command.
B. R1 is configured with theip summary-address command.
C. The route to 10.2.0.0/16 was redistributed into EIGRP.
D. R1 is configured with the variance command.
E. R1 is sourcing an external EIGRP route from Null0.
F. A default route has been redistributed into the EIGRP autonomous system.
Answer: B,D,F
QUESTION NO: 84
Switch C is configured with UplinkFast. How much time will expire after a failure in L2 before switch C activates the port connected to L3?


A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 1-5 seconds
D. 50 seconds

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 85
On a 3550 EMI switch, which three types of interfaces can be used to configure HSRP? (Choose three.)
A. BVI interface
B. EtherChannel port channel
C. routed port
D. loopback interface
E. SVI interface
F. access port
Answer: B,C,E
QUESTION NO: 86

Which is a valid multicast MAC address?
A. 01-00-5E-0A-08-CF
B. 01-00-E0-56-AE-3C
C. 00-01-E0-A8-B2-C1
D. FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF
E. 00-00-00-FA-11-67
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 87
Given the NSAP, 39.0100.0102.0001.0c00.1211.00, which portion is interpreted by IS-IS as the area?
A. 0001
B. 39.0100.0102
C. 39.0100
D. 0001.0c00
E. 39
F. 0001.0c00.1211
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 88
When IP multicast is enabled via PIM, which mode uses the flood and prune method?
A. PIM sparse-dense
B. PIM-DM
C. PIM-RP
D. PIM-SM
E. Bidir-PIM
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 89
Identify three characteristics of EIGRP feasible successors? (Choose three.)
A. Traffic will be load balanced between feasible successors with the same advertised distance.

B. If the advertised distance of the non-successor route is less than the feasible distance of best route, then that route is identified as a feasible successor.
C. The feasible successor can be found in the routing table.
D. A feasible successor is selected by comparing the advertised distance of a non-successor route to the feasible distance of the best route.
E. If the successor becomes unavailable, then the feasible successor can be used immediately without recalculating for a lost route.
Answer: B,D,E
QUESTION NO: 90
Which three statements are correct about the differences in IS-IS and OSPF? (Choose three.)
A. OSPF has more area types than does IS-IS.
B. For greater fine tuning there are more IS-IS timers.
C. IS-IS is more CPU-intensive than is OSPF.
D. IS-IS LSP contains TLV fields and OSPF LSU contains the LSAs.
E. New additions to the protocol are easily implemented in OSPF but not with IS-IS.
Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 91
What is periodically sent by a DIS on a LAN to ensure that all adjacent neighbors' IS-IS link-state databases are synchronized?
A. complete SNP (CSNP)
B. link-state summary
C. database query
D. hello
E. database description packet (DDP)
F. partial SNP (PSNP)

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 92
When configuring EIGRP to run across a 56 Kbps serial PPP link, what command do you need to put under the serial interface to ensure proper convergence of EIGRP routes?

A. bandwidth 56000
B. ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 1 56000
C. bandwidth 56
D. ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 1 56
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 93
Which statement is true concerning EIGRP neighbors forming adjacencies?
A. Configuration of the variance command must match between peers.
B. Different autonomous systems can be configured on each router.
C. Hello and hold time values are configured locally and do not have to match.
D. K-values are configured locally and do not have to match.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 94 CORRECT TEXT
Look at the picture.



QUESTION NO: 95
Examine the BGP table. What is the correct command to summarize the listed prefixes into a single summary prefix of 192.168.12.0/22 while also allowing for the advertisement of the more specific prefixes?

A. aggregate-address 192.168.12.0 255.255.252.0 summary-only
B. network 192.168.12.0 mask 255.255.252.0
C. network 192.168.12.0
D. network 192.168.12.0 mask 0.0.3.255
E. aggregate-address 192.168.12.0 255.255.252.0 as-set
F. aggregate-address 192.168.12.0 255.255.252.0
Answer: F


QUESTION NO: 96
Which three IPv6 notations represent the same address? (Choose three.)
A. 2031:0:130F:::9C0:876A:130B
B. 2031:0000:130F:0000:0000:09C0:876A:130B
C. 2031:0:130F:0:0:09C0:876A:130B
D. 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B
E. 2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B
F. 2031::130F:0::9C0:876A:130B
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 97
Refer to the exhibit. During the process of configuring a virtual link to connect area 2 with the backbone area, the network administrator received this console message on R3:*Mar 1
00:25:01.084:
%OSPF-4-ERRRCV: Received invalid packet: mismatch area ID, from backbone area must be virtual link but not found from 20.20.20.1, Serial 0How should the virtual link be

A.
R1(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 20.20.20.2R3(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 30.30.30.2

B.
R1(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 3.3.3.3R3(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 1.1.1.1

C.
R1(config-router)# area 0 virtual-link 1.1.1.1R3(config-router)# area 2 virtual-link 3.3.3.3

D.
R1(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 2.2.2.2R3(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 2.2.2.2

E.
R1(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 30.30.30.3R3(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 20.20.20.1



configured on the OSPF routers to establish full connectivity between the areas?


Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 98
Based on the show ip route isis output on R1, which statement is true?

A. The R1 IS-IS router is an ABR that belongs to multiple IS-IS areas.
B. Thei su 10.1.0.0/23 route is a suppressed route.
C. The R1 IS-IS router is an ASBR.
D. Thei su 10.1.0.0/23 route is an IS-IS external route.
E. Thei su 10.1.0.0/23 route is a summary route.
F. The R1 IS-IS router is performing route aggregation and is suppressing the more specific 10.1.0.0/23 prefix.

Answer: E


QUESTION NO: 99
How does VTP pruning enhance network bandwidth?
A. by disabling periodic VTP updates
B. by limiting the spreading of VLAN information
C. by restrictingunicast traffic to across VTP domains
D. by reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic to inactive VLANs
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 100
An EIGRP router has not established adjacency with a neighbor. What are two possible causes for this? (Choose two.)
A. Hello times do not match.
B. Hold times do not match.
C. AS numbers do not match.
D. K-values do not match.
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 101
Which BGP attribute will not be advertised in routing updates to its neighboring routers?
A. next hop
B. local preference
C. AS_path
D. weight
E. origin

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 102
What will be the effect of applying the VLAN access map configuration on a switch?Router(config)# vlan access-map thor 10Router(config-access-map)# match ip address net_10Router(config-access-map)#action forwardRouter(config-access-map)#exitRouter(config)# vlan filter thor vlan-list 12-16

A. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic is forwarded, other VLAN IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped.
B. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic matching net_10 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
C. IP traffic matchingvlan-list 12-16 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
D. IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped and all other IP packets are forwarded to VLANs 12 through 16.
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 103
In the use of 802.1X access control, which three protocols are allowed through the switch port before authentication takes place? (Choose three.)
A. TACACS+
B. CDP
C. STP
D. EAP MD5
E. protocols not filtered by an ACL
F. EAP-over-LAN
Answer: B,C,F

QUESTION NO: 104
Which two statements are true about the UplinkFast feature? (Choose two.)
A. When enabled, it is enabled for the entire switch and all VLANs.
B. It must be used with thePortFast feature enabled.
C. It should be configured on all switches, including the Root Bridge.
D. When the primary Root Port uplink fails, another blocked uplink can be immediately brought up for use.
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 105

Which two table types are CEF components?(Choose two.)
A. caching tables
B. route tables
C. neighbor tables
D. adjacency tables
E. forwarding information base
Answer: D,E
QUESTION NO: 106
Based on the show spanning-tree vlan 200 output shown in the exhibit, which two statements about the STP process for VLAN 200 are true? (Choose two.)

A. This switch is the root bridge for VLAN 200.
B. BPDUs will be sent out every 10 seconds.
C. The time spent in the learning state will be 15 seconds.
D. The time spent in the listening state will be 30 seconds.
E. The maximum length of time that the BPDU information will be saved is 30 seconds.
F. BPDUs will be sent out every two seconds.
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 107
Examine the above configuration. What does the route map named test accomplish?


A. marks all prefixes advertised to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
B. marks the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix received from the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
C. marks all prefixes received from the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
D. permits only the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix to be received from the 10.1.1.1 neighbor
E. marks the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix advertised to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
F. permits only the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix to be advertised to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor

Answer: E


QUESTION NO: 108
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands would both produce the output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)


A. show standby
B. show standby group 10
C. showglbp standby
D. showglbp disabled
E. showglbp 10
F. showglbp active
Answer: E,F
QUESTION NO: 109
What action does an EIGRP router take when it cannot find a feasible successor for a network?
A. It transitions from passive to active state for that network and queries its neighbors.
B. It examines the routing and neighbor tables for the next best path.
C. It examines the topology table for a next best path.
D. It transitions from active to passive state for that network and queries its neighbors.

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 110
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting IS-IS routing. Currently, RTA is not receiving Link State Packets (LSPs) from RTB. What is the problem?


A. RTB must be configured with the is-type level-1 command under routerisis.
B. RTA and RTB are configured in different areas.
C. RTA must be configured with theisis circuit-type level-1 under interface s0.
D. RTA and RTB should both be configured for is-type level-2 under routerisis.
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 111
Which three are benefits of IS-IS over OSPF? (Choose three.)
A. supports network layer protocols other than IP
B. supports more routers in an area
C. requires fewer neighbor relationships in a broadcastmultiaccess network
D. supports route tags
E. produces fewer link state advertisements for a given network
F. does not require Hello packets to establish neighbor relationships
Answer: A,B,E QUESTION NO: 112


What are three disadvantages of a router-on-a-stick configuration for InterVLAN routing? (Choose three.)
A. The router becomes a single point of failure for the network.
B. InterVLAN routing cannot be filtered by the router.
C. NetFlow Switching is required for InterVLAN accounting.
D. There is a possibility of inadequate bandwidth for each VLAN.
E. Routers will not route STP BPDUs.
F. Additional overhead on the router can occur.
Answer: A,D,F
QUESTION NO: 113
Which three steps are most helpful in verifying proper route redistribution? (Choose three.)
A. On the ASBR router performing the route redistribution, use the showip protocol command to verify the redistribution configurations.
B. On the routers not performing the route redistribution, use the showip protocols command to verify the routing information sources.
C. On the ASBR router performing the route redistribution, use the showip route command to verify that the proper routes from each routing protocol are there.
D. On the routers not performing the route redistribution, use the debugip routing command to verify the routing updates from the ASBR.
E. On the routers not performing the route redistribution, use the showip route command to see if the redistributed routes show up.
Answer: A,C,E
QUESTION NO: 114
Based on the exhibit, which statement is true.


A. There is a set entry missing in the route-map REDIST-MAP deny 20 statement.
B. All routes not matching access list 101 or 110 will be flagged as an OSPF external type 2 with a metric of 5000.
C. There is a match entry missing in the route-map REDIST-MAP permit 30 statement.
D. All routes matching access list 110 will be forwarded.
E. The set metric-type entry is not a valid route-map command.

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 115
A problem was reported that the 10.10.10.0/24 prefix was not injected into the local BGP table on RouterA. The following information is available from RouterA:configuration:router bgp 65001network 10.0.0.0neighbor 172.16.1.1 remote-as 65002no auto-summaryrouting table information:show ip route | include 10O 10.10.10.0/24 [110/11] via 192.168.1.1, 2d00h, Ethernet0/0Why is this prefix not in the local BGP table?
A. The network command is wrong.
B. This route is not a BGP learned route.
C. The 172.16.1.1 neighbor is down.
D. The prefix 10.10.10.0/24 is not a 'connected' route.
Answer: A QUESTION NO: 116


Assuming that VLAN 1 and VLAN 2 traffic is enabled on the above network, what effect will the following command have when entered on port 0/2 on Switch Aspanning-tree vlan 1 port-priority

A. VLAN 2 traffic will be blocked on Switch B port 1/1.
B. VLANs 1 and 2 will be blocked on Switch A port 0/1.
C. VLAN 1 traffic will be blocked on Switch B port 1/1.
D. VLANs 1 and 2 will be blocked on Switch A port 0/2.
E. VLAN 2 traffic will be blocked on Switch A port 0/2.
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 117
Examine the above configuration. What does the route map named test accomplish?


A. marks all prefixes advertised to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
B. marks the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix advertised to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
C. permits only the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix to be advertised to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor
D. marks all prefixes received from the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
E. marks the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix received from the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
F. permits only the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix to be received from the 10.1.1.1 neighbor
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 118
Refer to the exhibit. If R1 is configured for 6to4 tunneling, what will the prefix of its IPv6 network be?

A. 1723:1100:1::/48

B. AC1F:6401::/32
C. 3FFE:AC1F:6401::/32
D. FFFF:AC1F:6401::/16
E. 2002:AC1F:6401::/48
Answer: E


QUESTION NO: 119
In a link-state environment, what does the router do when a route flaps?
A. It floods the area with new routing information.
B. It enters theexstart state with its neighbors.
C. It waits for theholdown timers to expire and then sends an update.
D. It generates a routing exchange using the hello protocol.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 120
Refer to the exhibit. Which command was used to inject the summary route into the route table?

A. Router(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0
B. Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 null 0
C. Router(config-router)# no auto-summary
D. Router(config-router)# default-information originate

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 121

In the use of 802.1X access control, which three protocols are allowed through the switch port before authentication takes place? (Choose three.)
A. STP
B. EAP-over-LAN
C. CDP
D. TACACS+
E. protocols not filtered by an ACL
F. EAP MD5
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 122
Which is the most effective technique to contain EIGRP queries?
A. route summarization
B. establishing separate autonomous systems
C. using a hierarchical addressing scheme
D. configuring route filters

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 123
Refer to the exhibit. All routers have been simultaneously rebooted, and neighbor relationships have been established. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The RTA RID is 192.168.1.1.
B. The RTB RID is 10.1.1.2.
C. The RTA RID is 1.1.1.1.
D. The RTB RID is 192.168.1.2.
E. The RTA RID is 10.1.1.1.

F. The RTB RID is 192.168.2.1.
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 124
Given the above OSPF network, which command will RTB use to summarize routes for the 192.168.16.0/22 supernet before injecting them into Area 0?

A. area 0 range 192.168.16.0 255.255.252.0
B. area 10 range 192.168.16.0 255.255.252.0
C. ip summary-address ospf 101 192.168.16.0 255.255.252.0
D. ip summary-address area 0 192.168.16.0 255.255.252.0
E. summary-address 192.168.16.0 255.255.252.0

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 125
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)


A. RTB will receive two routes, the manual summary address of 2.1.0.0/16 and the automatic, summarizedclassful address of 2.0.0.0/8.
B. The summary route will be sourced from the RTA Null0 interface in the RTA routing table.
C. The summary route will be assigned the administrative distance of 5 in the RTB routing table.
D. RTB will receive only the summary address of 2.0.0.0/8.
E. The summary route will be assigned the administrative distance of 90 in the RTA routing table.
F. The summary route will be sourced from the RTA s0/0 interface in the RTA routing table.
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 126
Which statement is correct about 802.1Q trunking?
A. In 802.1Qtrunking, all VLAN packets are tagged on the trunk link, except the native VLAN.
B. The native VLAN on both ends of the trunk must be VLAN 1.
C. Both switches must be in the same VTP domain.
D. 802.1Qtrunking can only be configured on a Layer 2 port.
E. The encapsulation type on both ends of the trunk does not have to match.
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 127
Which process plays a major role in the creation of the CEF adjacency table?
A. PDU header rewrite
B. hello packet exchange
C. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

D. NetFlow switching
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 128
What are three functional areas of the Enterprise Composite Network Model? (Choose three.)
A. Enterprise Campus
B. Building Access
C. Service Provider Edge
D. Server Farm
E. Enterprise Edge
F. Campus Backbone
Answer: A,C,E
QUESTION NO: 129
In the configuration below, how much bandwidth will be used by the EIGRP updates? interface serial0bandwidth 40ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 1 200
A. 40 Mbps
B. 80 Mbps
C. 200 kbps
D. 80 kbps
E. 40 kbps
F. 60 kbps

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 130
Which DTP switchport mode parameter sets the switch port to actively send and respond to DTP negotiation frames?
A. access
B. dynamic auto
C. no negotiate
D. trunk
E. dynamic desirable

Answer: E


QUESTION NO: 131
Which statement is true regarding the configuration of ISL trunks?

A. ISLtrunking requires that native VLANs match.
B. A Catalyst switch will report giants if one side is configured for ISL while the other side is not.
C. All Catalyst switches support ISLtrunking.
D. A Catalyst switch cannot have ISL and IEEE 802.1q trunks enabled.
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 132
Which three techniques can be used to transition from IPv4 to IPv6? (Choose three.)
A. mobile IP
B. dual stack
C. 6to4 tunneling
D. anycast
E. NAT
F. flow label
Answer: B,C,E
QUESTION NO: 133
Based on the show ip route isis output on R1, which statement is true?


A. Thei su 10.1.0.0/23 route is a summary route.
B. The R1 IS-IS router is an ASBR.
C. The R1 IS-IS router is an ABR that belongs to multiple IS-IS areas.
D. Thei su 10.1.0.0/23 route is a suppressed route.
E. The R1 IS-IS router is performing route aggregation and is suppressing the more specific 10.1.0.0/23 prefix.
F. Thei su 10.1.0.0/23 route is an IS-IS external route.
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 134
Which protocol enables a group of routers to form a single virtual router and use the real IP address of a router as the gateway address?
A. Proxy ARP
B. HSRP
C. IRDP
D. GLBP
E. VRRP
Answer: E

QUESTION NO: 135
Which three are benefits of IS-IS over OSPF? (Choose three.)
A. supports more routers in an area
B. does not require Hello packets to establish neighbor relationships
C. supports route tags
D. produces fewer link state advertisements for a given network
E. supports network layer protocols other than IP
F. requires fewer neighbor relationships in a broadcastmultiaccess network

Answer: A,D,E
QUESTION NO: 136
Which statement is true about EBGP?
A. The next hop does not change when BGP updates are exchanged between EBGP neighbors.
B. A static route can be used to form an adjacency between neighbors.
C. EBGP requires a full mesh.
D. An internal routing protocol can be used to reach an EBGP neighbor.

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 137
Which three statements are true of the Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP)? (Choose three.)
A. AnEtherchannel link will form if one end of the channel is configured as auto and the other end as desirable mode.
B. PAgP is a standards-based protocol defined in IEEE 802.3ad.
C. PAgP does not require the STP costs to be the same in order to form an EtherChannel.
D. PAgP is used to connect to non-Cisco devices.
E. PAgP packets are sent with the command channel-group 1 mode desirable.
F. AnEtherchannel link will form if one end of the channel is configured as active and the other end as passive mode.
Answer: A,C,E

QUESTION NO: 138
Which two are characteristics of the IS-IS protocol but not OSPF? (Choose two.)
A. supports demand circuit routing
B. three layers of hierarchical routing
C. provides for network scalability by allowing the network to be separated into areas
D. provides routing support for multiple network layer protocols
E. utilizes SPF algorithm
F. forms adjacencies with all neighbors
Answer: D,F QUESTION NO: 139


Refer to the diagram and configuration above. Policy-based routing is configured on RTB to direct all traffic coming from sources with address prefixes 192.168.10.0/24 to the next hop
192.168.16.254. The exception should be made for packets originating from the Telnet port on host 192.168.10.5 to be forwarded to the next hop 192.168.17.254. The debug ip packet command executed on RTC shows that the policy routing does not work correctly. What could be the problem?

A. Theip local policy route-map should be configured on RTA Serial0 interface.
B. The telnet keyword in the access-list 101 is associated with the wrong port.
C. The standard access list 1 should be replaced with an extended access-list.
D. The route map statements are in the wrong order.
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 140
Which two statements are true about RIP? (Choose two.)

A. When configured with the version 1 command, RIP interfaces will only accept and send version 1 updates.
B. By default, RIP interfaces will only accept and send version 1 updates.
C. When configured with the version 2 command, RIP interfaces will accept version 1 and 2 updates, but will only send version 2 updates.
D. By default, RIP interfaces will accept version 1 and 2 updates, but will only send version 1 updates.
E. When configured with the version 2 command, RIP interfaces will only accept version 2 updates, but will send version 1 and version 2 updates.
F. When configured with the version 1 command, RIP interfaces will accept version 1 and 2 updates, but will only send version 1 updates.
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 141
Which two tasks are required to configure PIM for IP multicast routing? (Choose two.)
A. Join a multicast group.
B. Configure the TTL threshold.
C. Enable CGMP.
D. Enable IP multicast routing.
E. Enable PIM on an interface.
Answer: D,E

QUESTION NO: 142
Which VTP information does a Catalyst switch advertise on its trunk ports when using VTP? (Choose two.)
A. VTP mode
B. configuration revision number
C. management domain
D. negotiation status
E. STP root status
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 143

What are two routing protocols defined by the OSI protocol suite at the network layer? (Choose two.)
A. End System-to-Intermediate System
B. End System-to-End System
C. Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System
D. Interior Gateway Routing Protocol
E. Routing Information Protocol
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 144
Which protocol enables a group of routers to form a single virtual router and use the real IP address of a router as the gateway address?
A. VRRP
B. Proxy ARP
C. IRDP
D. HSRP
E. GLBP

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 145
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the result of using the set ip default next-hop command?

A. If a packet received by the router matches the access list, it will always be forwarded to
10.10.10.2.
B. If a packet received by the router matches the access list, it will be forwarded to 200.200.200.4 only if a path to 10.10.10.0 is not present in the routing table.

C. If a packet received by the router matches the access list, it will be forwarded to 10.10.10.2 only if a path to 200.200.200.0 is present in the routing table.
D. If a packet received by the router matches the access list, it will be forwarded to 10.10.10.2 only if a path to 200.200.200.0 is not present in the routing table.
E. If a packet received by the router matches the access list, it will be forwarded to 200.200.200.4 only if a path to 100.100.100.0 is present in the routing table.
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 146
Which two statements are true about RIP? (Choose two.)
A. By default, RIP interfaces will only accept and send version 1 updates.
B. By default, RIP interfaces will accept version 1 and 2 updates, but will only send version 1 updates.
C. When configured with the version 2 command, RIP interfaces will accept version 1 and 2 updates, but will only send version 2 updates.
D. When configured with the version 1 command, RIP interfaces will accept version 1 and 2 updates, but will only send version 1 updates.
E. When configured with the version 1 command, RIP interfaces will only accept and send version 1 updates.
F. When configured with the version 2 command, RIP interfaces will only accept version 2 updates, but will send version 1 and version 2 updates.
Answer: B,E

QUESTION NO: 147
Which three are characteristics of IPv6? (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 header contains the protocol field.
B. An IPv6 header contains the header checksum field.
C. An IPv6 header is 20 bits long.
D. IPv6 routers send RA messages.
E. An IPv6 header contains the next header field.
F. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long.
Answer: D,E,F QUESTION NO: 148


What is the effect of the following configuration commands? RTB(config)#router rip RTB(config-router)#version 2 RTB(config-router)#no auto-summary
A. subnet mask information is not passed in the routing updates
B. subnets are madediscontiguous
C. subnets are advertised across network boundaries
D. subnets are summarized at the network boundary
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 149
Which statement is true about IBGP routers?
A. They must be directly connected.
B. They can be in a different AS.
C. They do not need to be directly connected.
D. They must be fully meshed.
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 150
Refer to the exhibit. The DLSwitch is a Catalyst 3550 and the ALSwitch is a Catalyst 2950. Which two configurations sequence would be used to establish an EtherChannel group? (Choose two.)

A. ALSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 - 2ALSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
B. DLSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 - 2DLSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode auto
C. ALSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 - 2ALSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol pagpALSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
D. DLSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 - 2DLSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol pagpDLSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode auto

E. DLSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 - 2DLSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol lacpDLSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
F. ALSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 - 2ALSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol lacpALSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 151
What are three characteristics of RIPv2? (Choose three.)
A. broadcasts updates
B. supportsdiscontiguous networks by default
C. does not supportdiscontiguous networks by default
D. does not support variable-length subnet mask by default
E. multicasts updates to 224.0.0.9
F. supports variable-length subnet mask by default
Answer: C,E,F

QUESTION NO: 152
Which enhancement was added to IGMP version 3?
A. leave group message
B. membership query message
C. membership report message
D. source filtering
E. destination filtering
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 153
Which three statements are true when configuring redistribution for OSPF? (Choose three.)
A. The default metric type is 2.
B. The default metric type is 1.
C. The default metric is 10.
D. The default metric is 20.
E. Subnets do not redistribute by default.

F. Subnets redistribute by default.
Answer: A,D,E
QUESTION NO: 154
A network administrator assigns a multicast address of 239.255.8.5 to an application running on a device with an Ethernet MAC address of 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80. Which Layer 2 multicast address will this device use?
A. ff.ff.ff.ff.ff.ff
B. 01.00.5e.05.f1.80
C. 01.00.5e.7F.08.05
D. 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80
E. 01.b2.7d.0a.08.05

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 155
Refer to the exhibit. All switches are connected using FastEthernet links. Given the information in the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Switch S2 is the root bridge.
B. Switch S1 is the root bridge.

C. Port 1/2 on switch S1 is anondesignated port.
D. Port 1/2 on switch S2 is anondesignated port.
E. Switch S3 is the root bridge.
F. Port 1/2 on switch S3 is anondesignated port.
Answer: B,F
QUESTION NO: 156
What will be the effect of applying the VLAN access map configuration on a switch?Router(config)# vlan access-map thor 10Router(config-access-map)# match ip address net_10Router(config-access-map)#action forwardRouter(config-access-map)#exitRouter(config)# vlan filter thor vlan-list 12-16
A. IP traffic matchingvlan-list 12-16 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
B. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic matching net_10 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
C. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic is forwarded, other VLAN IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped.
D. IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped and all other IP packets are forwarded to VLANs 12 through 16.

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 157
About how long does it take for the port to change from blocking to forwarding when spanning-tree PortFast is enabled?
A. 15 seconds
B. 50 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. immediately
E. 20 seconds
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 158
What does IS-IS use to establish and maintain neighbor relationships between IS's?

A. IIH
B. CLNS
C. ISH
D. CLNP
E. LSP
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 159
Which three are advantages to creating multiple areas in OSPF? (Choose three.)
A. less frequent SPF calculations
B. reduced LSU overhead
C. fewer adjacencies needed
D. smaller routing tables
E. fewer hello packets
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 160
What must be configured on a Cisco switch in order to advertise VLAN information?
A. VTP password
B. VTP mode
C. VTP domain name
D. VTP pruning
E. VTP revision number

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 161
The network administrator maps VLANs 10 through 20 to MST instance 2. How will this information be propagated to all appropriate switches?
A. Multiple Spanning Tree must be manually configured on the appropriate switches.
B. Information is stored in the Forwarding Information Base and the switch will reply upon query.
C. It will be propagated in VTP updates.
D. Information will be carried in the RSTP BPDUs.

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 162
Which statement best describes autoconfiguration for IPv6?
A. The local DHCP server will detect a new host has been added to the LAN segment and automatically send a unique IPv6 address to the new host.
B. A host will contact its local router to receive its unique IPv6 address.
C. A router connected to the local link sends its 64 bit prefix address and the host appends its MAC address to create its unique IPv6 address.
D. A router connected to the local link sends a broadcast periodically to advertise the subnet and the host appends its locally configured IPv4 address to create a unique IPv6 address.
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 163
Which option correctly identifies the Cisco IOS switching methods in descending order from the fastest method to the slowest method?
A. process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching
B. fast switching, process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
C. process switching, CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching
D. distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching, process switching
E. CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching, process switching
F. process switching, fast switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 164
Which three statements are true concerning redistributed routes when a default metric is not configured? (Choose three)
A. IS-IS assigns a default metric of 0 to redistributed routes.
B. OSPF assigns a default metric of 1 for routes from all protocols except BGP, which gets a metric of 20.
C. IS-IS assigns a default metric of 10 to redistributed routes.
D. RIP, IGRP, and EIGRP assign a default metric of 0 (infinity) to redistributed routes and will only advertise these routes if a valid seed metric is configured.

E. OSPF assigns a default metric of 20 for routes from all protocols except BGP, which gets a metric of 1.
F. RIP, IGRP, and EIGRP assign a default metric of 0 (infinity) to redistributed routes and will advertise these routes accordingly.
Answer: A,D,E
QUESTION NO: 165
Examine the router output above. Which two items are correct? (Choose two.)

A. If Ethernet 0/2 goes down, the standby router will take over.
B. Router A will assume the active state if its priority is the highest.
C. The local IP address of Router A is 10.1.0.6.
D. The local IP address of Router A is 10.1.0.20.
E. When Ethernet 0/3 ofRouterA comes back up, the priority will become 105.
Answer: B,E

QUESTION NO: 166
What two pieces of information will the show vlan id 5 command display? (Choose two.)
A. MTU and type
B. VLAN information on port 0/5
C. utilization
D. ports in VLAN 5
E. filters
Answer: A,D QUESTION NO: 167



Which two provide inter-area routing services? (Choose two.)
A. L1 IS
B. L2 ES
C. L1/L2 IS
D. L1 ES
E. L2 IS
Answer: C,E
QUESTION NO: 168
What is correct about the BGP synchronization command? (Choose two.)
A. If it is turned ON, a prefix learned from IBGP neighbor is valid only if a non-bgp (IGP) route exists for that prefix.
B. Synchronization improves BGP routing convergence.
C. Synchronization must be enabled when implementing a multi-homed BGP connection to multiple ISPs.
D. Synchronization is necessary when peering with an EBGP neighbor.
E. Synchronization can be turned off if all the transit routers in an Autonomous system running full mesh IBGP.
Answer: A,E

QUESTION NO: 169
In order for two routers to become EIGRP neighbors, which two values must match? (Choose two.)
A. autonomous system
B. hello time
C. delay
D. K values
E. hold time
Answer: A,D QUESTION NO: 170



Which two statements are true about a switched virtual interface (SVI)? (Choose two.)
A. An SVI is created for the default VLAN (VLAN1) to permit remote switch administration by default.
B. An SVI provides a default gateway for a VLAN.
C. SVI is another name for a routed port.
D. An SVI is created by entering the noswitchport command in interface configuration mode.
E. Multiple SVIs can be associated with a VLAN.
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 171
Which well-defined routing protocol would a network administrator configure on multicast routers when member routers are widely dispersed?
A. Protocol Independent Multicast Sparse Mode (PIM-SM)
B. Protocol Independent Multicast Dense Mode (PIM-DM)
C. Multicast Open Shortest Path First (MOSPF)
D. Core-Based Trees (CBT)
E. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 172
Which two statements concerning STP state changes are true? (Choose two.)
A. If a forwarding port receives an inferior BPDU, it will transition to listening.
B. Uponbootup, a port transitions from blocking to forwarding because it assumes itself as root.
C. If a forwarding port receives no BPDUs by themax_age time limit, it will transition to listening.
D. Uponbootup, a port transitions from listening to forwarding because it assumes itself as root.
E. Uponbootup, a port transitions from blocking to listening because it assumes itself as root.
F. If a blocked port receives no BPDUs by themax_age time limit, it will transition to listening.
Answer: E,F
QUESTION NO: 173 DRAG DROP

Look at the picture.

Answer:


QUESTION NO: 174
Given the network configuration above and assuming that STP is enabled, which port will be elected the non-designated port?

A. Port 1/1
B. Port 2/1
C. Port 3/2

D. Port 3/1
E. Port 2/2
F. Port 1/2
Answer: F


QUESTION NO: 175
Which command displays the IBGP and EBGP neighbors that are configured?
A. showip bgp summary
B. showip bgp
C. showip bgp peers
D. showip bgp paths
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 176
What is the maximum number of HSRP standby groups that can be configured on a Cisco router?
A. 16
B. 256
C. 128
D. 64
E. 32
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 177
Given the following configuration on a switch interface, what happens when a host with the MAC address of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port? switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002 switchport port-security violation shutdown
A. The host will be refused access.
B. The port will shut down.
C. The host will be allowed to connect.
D. The host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected.

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 178
Why should iBGP sessions be fully meshed within a Transit AS?
A. Routes learned viaeBGP are never propagated to other iBGP peers.
B. Routes learned viaiBGP are never propagated to other iBGP peers.
C. Routes learned viaiBGP are never propagated to other eBGP peers.
D. A full mesh allows for optimal routing within the Transit AS.
E. BGP requires redundant TCP sessions betweeniBGP peers.
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 179
Refer to the exhibit. BGP sessions are established between all autonomous systems. AS 100 receives updates about network 200.200.200.0/24 from routers R2, R3, R4, and R5 with different MED values. Which router will be chosen as a next hop to reach the network 200.200.200.0/24 if all other attributes are the same?

A. R3
B. R2
C. R5
D. R4
Answer: B



QUESTION NO: 180
Refer to the exhibit. The administrator of this internetwork needs to provide subnets with a /30 mask for the three WAN links connecting RTA to RTB, RTC, and RTD. The address ranges allocated for these connections are within the 172.16.14.0/27 address range. Which three subnets can be used for the WAN links?

A. 172.16.14.68/30172.16.14.72/30172.16.14.76/30
B. 172.16.14.36/30172.16.14.40/30172.16.14.44/30
C. 172.16.14.132/30172.16.14.136/30172.16.14.140/30
D. 172.16.14.100/30172.16.14.104/30172.16.14.108/30
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 181
Which switch command enables a trunking protocol that appends a four byte CRC to the packet?
A. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation itef
B. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation isl
C. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation fddi
D. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 182
Observe the diagram. RTC is the hub router and RTA and RTB are the spokes. There are no virtual circuits between the spoke locations. What is needed to successfully route traffic to the 11.11.11.0/24 network from RTA?

A. Nothing is required. This is the default behavior on this topology.
B. The neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self command on RTA.
C. The neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self command on RTB.
D. The neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self command on RTC.
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 183
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the distribute-list command in the R1 configuration?


A. R1 will filter only the 172.24.1.0/24 route from the R2 RIP updates.
B. R1 will not filter any routes because there is no exact prefix match.
C. R1 will filter the 10.1.0.0/24 and the 172.24.1.0/24 routes from the R2 RIP updates.
D. R1 will permit only the 10.0.0.0/24 route in the R2 RIP updates.
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 184
BGP contains two paths to a destination. Assuming both routes were originated locally and have an equal weight, what will be the next determining factor in choosing the best path?
A. lowest neighbor IP address
B. lowest origin code
C. shortest AS-path
D. lowest MED
E. highest local preference
Answer: E


QUESTION NO: 185
If there are two equal cost paths to the root switch, what is the next criterion to determine the root port?
A. highest MAC address on the receiving port
B. lowest port ID
C. lowest time to receive BPDUs
D. lowest sender bridge ID
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 186
Assuming that VLAN 1 and VLAN 2 traffic is enabled on the above network, what effect will the following command have when entered on port 0/2 on Switch Aspanning-tree vlan 1 port-priority


A. VLANs 1 and 2 will be blocked on Switch A port 0/1.
B. VLAN 2 traffic will be blocked on Switch B port 1/1.
C. VLANs 1 and 2 will be blocked on Switch A port 0/2.
D. VLAN 2 traffic will be blocked on Switch A port 0/2.
E. VLAN 1 traffic will be blocked on Switch B port 1/1.
Answer: E


QUESTION NO: 187
Frames from Workstation 1 are given the proper priority through Switch A, but Switch B handles Workstation 1 frames as if they have no precedence. Which of the following actions will allow traffic from Workstation 1 to be given the proper priority?

A. configuremls qos trust cos command under Switch B fa0/1 interface
B. configuremls qos trust cos command under Switch A fa0/1 interface
C. configureqos cos 5 command under Switch A fa0/1 interface
D. configureqos all command under Switch B fa0/1 interface E. configureqos cos 5 command under Switch B fa0/1 interface

F. configuremls qos trust cos 5 command under Switch B fa0/1 interface
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 188
Which two methods advertise internal networks to external ISPs via BGP? (Choose two.)
A. disabling synchronization
B. forcing the next-hop address
C. defining routes via the network statement
D. using aggregate routes
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 189
Which BGP attribute is used by BGP to prevent routing loops?
A. local preference
B. weight
C. origin
D. MED
E. AS-path
F. next-hop

Answer: E


QUESTION NO: 190
What will be the effect of applying the VLAN access map configuration on a switch?Router(config)# vlan access-map thor 10Router(config-access-map)# match ip address net_10Router(config-access-map)#action forwardRouter(config-access-map)#exitRouter(config)# vlan filter thor vlan-list 12-16
A. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic matching net_10 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
B. IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped and all other IP packets are forwarded to VLANs 12 through 16.
C. IP traffic matchingvlan-list 12-16 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.

D. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic is forwarded, other VLAN IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped.
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 191
What can cause an OSPF virtual link not to be established?
A. The virtual link transit area is not Area 0.
B. The virtual link is set up over an NBMA network.
C. The ABRs are using the wrong OSPF router ID in the virtual link configuration.
D. There are DR/BDR election errors on the OSPF virtual link.
E. There is a mismatch of the OSPF network type on the virtual link configuration.
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 192
Which statement is true if the spanning tree enhancement Root Guard is enabled?
A. If inferior BPDUs are received on a root port, all blocked ports become alternate paths to the root bridge.
B. If BPDUs are not received on anondesignated port, the port is moved into the STP loop-inconsistent blocked state.
C. If superior BPDUs are received on a designated port, the interface is placed into the root-inconsistent blocked state.
D. If BPDUs are received on aPortFast enabled port, the port is disabled.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 193
Which BGP attribute is used by BGP to prevent routing loops?
A. MED
B. next-hop
C. local preference
D. weight
E. origin
F. AS-path

Answer: F


QUESTION NO: 194
Which two tasks are required to configure PIM for IP multicast routing? (Choose two.)
A. Enable IP multicast routing.
B. Configure the TTL threshold.
C. Join a multicast group.
D. Enable PIM on an interface.
E. Enable CGMP.
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 195
You must configure an Ethernet trunk to operate in ISL mode between two Cisco switches. Which two are required at each end of the link for the trunk to operate correctly? (Choose two.)
A. an identical VTP mode
B. an identical speed/duplex
C. an identical trunk negotiation parameter
D. an identical trunk encapsulation parameter
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 196 CORRECT TEXT
Look at the picture.




QUESTION NO: 197 DRAG DROP
Look at the picture.

Answer:

QUESTION NO: 198

Which enhancement was added to IGMP version 3?
A. membership query message
B. source filtering
C. leave group message
D. membership report message
E. destination filtering
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 199
Which three QoS mechanisms can be configured to improve VoIP quality on a converged network? (Choose three.)
A. the proper classification and marking of the traffic as close to the source as possible
B. the use of 802.1QinQtrunking for VoIP traffic
C. the use of a queuing method that will give VoIP traffic strict priority over other traffic
D. the use of WRED for the VoIP traffic
E. the use of RTP header compression for the VoIP traffic
Answer: A,C,E
QUESTION NO: 200
The 192.168.0.0 network is not being propagated throughout the network. Observe the BGP configuration commands from the advertising router. What is the reason the 192.168.0.0 route is not being advertised? router bgp 65111 neighbor 172.16.1.1 remote-as 65111 neighbor
172.16.2.1 remote-as 65112 network 192.168.0.0 network 10.0.0.0 ! ip route 192.168.0.0
255.255.0.0 null0
A. The auto-summary configuration is missing.
B. The network 192.168.0.0 statement is missing mask 255.255.0.0
C. The network 192.168.0.0 statement is missing mask 0.0.255.255.
D. The network 10.0.0.0 statement is missing mask 0.255.255.255.
E. The network 10.0.0.0 statement is missing mask 255.0.0.0.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 201

Which command displays the IBGP and EBGP neighbors that are configured?
A. showip bgp
B. showip bgp peers
C. showip bgp paths
D. showip bgp summary

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 202
Which command should you use to verify what networks are being routed by a given OSPF process?
A. showospf
B. showip protocols
C. showip route
D. showip ospf database
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 203
Which three types of OSPF route entries can be found in the routing table of an internal OSPF router within an OSPF NSSA area? (Choose three.)
A. O N2
B. O* N2
C. O
D. O E1
E. O E2
Answer: A,B,C

QUESTION NO: 204
How is the designated querier elected in IGMPv2?
A. The host that responds first to the election query is designated.
B. The router with the lowest IP address on a subnet is designated.
C. The first router to appear on a subnet is designated.

D. The host with the lowest MAC address on a segment is designated.
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 205
How many update packets would a RIPv2 router send to advertise 77 routes?
A. six update packets
B. five update packets
C. four update packets
D. three update packets
E. two update packets
F. one update packet
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 206
Which of the following NSAP addresses is a private, locally administered address?
A. 39.0f01.0002.0000.0c00.1111.00
B. 52.0f01.0002.0000.0c00.1111.00
C. 49.0004.30ac.0000.3090.c7df.00
D. 48.0f01.0002.0000.0c00.1111.00
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 207
Which statement correctly describes the extended system ID?
A. It is the VLAN identifier value and allows for 4096 BIDs to be uniquely identified.
B. It is a hex number used to measure the preference of a bridge in the spanning-tree algorithm.
C. It is a bridge MAC address which is allocated from a pool of MAC addresses that are factory assigned.
D. It is the 2-bit number of the MSTP instance.
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 208 CORRECT TEXT
Look at the picture.


QUESTION NO: 209
In a customer's network, VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is running with a domain named main1. VLANs 1,2,3,4,5,10,20 are active on the network. Suddenly the whole network goes down. No traffic is being passed on VLANs 2,3,4,5,10,20, however traffic passes on VLAN 1 and indicates all switches are operational. Right before the network problem occurred, a switch named TEST1 was added to the network. What three configuration issues on TEST1 could be causing the network outage? (Choose three.)
A. TEST1 has a higher VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
B. TEST1 is configured with only VLAN1.
C. TEST1 has a lower VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
D. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with the domain name main1.
E. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with a different domain name.
F. TEST1 is not configured to participate in VTP.
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 210

Observe the exhibit. If the command variance 3 were added to RTE, which path or paths would be chosen to route traffic to network X?

A. E-B-A and E-C-A
B. E-B-A, E-C-A and E-D-A
C. E-C-A and E-D-A
D. E-B-A
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 211
Which router redundancy protocol cannot be configured for interface tracking?
A. SLB
B. GLBP
C. VRRP
D. RPR
E. RPR+
F. HSRP
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 212
Given the above diagram and assuming that STP is enabled on all switch devices, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)


A. ASW13 will be elected the root bridge.
B. DSW11 will be elected the root bridge.
C. P3/2 will be elected thenondesignated port.
D. P2/2 will be elected thenondesignated port.
E. P3/1 will be elected thenondesignated port.
F. DSW12 will be elected the root bridge.
Answer: B,E
QUESTION NO: 213
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is trying to connect to the console port of Sw2. What authentication process will the switch go through?

A. The switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the local database.

B. The switch will attempt to authenticate using the enable secret password. If this fails, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the passwordgoaway.
C. The switch will contact theSmartPort database. If the SmartPort database is unreachable, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the enable secret password.
D. Authentication will fail because an IP address has not been specified for theSmartPort database.
E. The switch will contact theSmartPort database. If the SmartPort database is unreachable, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the local database.
F. Authentication will fail becauseSmartPort has not been enabled.

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 214
Which three IPv6 notations represent the same address? (Choose three.)
A. 2031:0:130F:::9C0:876A:130B
B. 2031:0000:130F:0000:0000:09C0:876A:130B
C. 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B
D. 2031::130F:0::9C0:876A:130B
E. 2031:0:130F:0:0:09C0:876A:130B
F. 2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B
Answer: B,C,E
QUESTION NO: 215
Based on the exhibited command output, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)


A. The route to 172.19.0.0/16 is undergoingrecomputation.
B. The router at 10.1.1.3 has not replied to the R1 query packet.
C. The EIGRP network is stable.
D. R1 has sent a query packet to 10.1.1.2.
E. The route to 172.19.0.0/16 is stuck-in-active.
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 216
What are three characteristics of RIPv2? (Choose three.)
A. broadcasts updates
B. supports variable-length subnet mask by default
C. does not support variable-length subnet mask by default
D. multicasts updates to 224.0.0.9
E. does not supportdiscontiguous networks by default
F. supportsdiscontiguous networks by default

Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION NO: 217 CORRECT TEXT
Look at the picture.



QUESTION NO: 218
Which two statements are true about a switched virtual interface (SVI)? (Choose two.)
A. An SVI is created for the default VLAN (VLAN1) to permit remote switch administration by default.
B. An SVI is created by entering the noswitchport command in interface configuration mode.
C. An SVI provides a default gateway for a VLAN.
D. SVI is another name for a routed port.
E. Multiple SVIs can be associated with a VLAN.
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 219
What can be determined about the HSRP relationship from the displayed debug output?


A. Thenonpreempt feature is enabled on the 172.16.11.112 router.
B. The preempt feature is not enabled on the 172.16.11.111 router.
C. Router 172.16.11.111 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
172.16.11.112.
D. Router 172.16.11.112 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
172.16.11.111.
E. The IP address 172.16.11.112 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.
F. The IP address 172.16.11.111 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 220
What is the effect of the following configuration commands? RTB(config)#router rip RTB(config-router)#version 2 RTB(config-router)#no auto-summary
A. subnet mask information is not passed in the routing updates
B. subnets are madediscontiguous
C. subnets are advertised across network boundaries
D. subnets are summarized at the network boundary
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 221
Which command will ensure that External_B will be the primary router for traffic using the gateway address of 172.16.15.20?


A. OnExternal_B add the command standby 1 priority 80.
B. OnExternal_A add the command standby 1 priority 80.
C. OnExternal_B remove the command standby 1 preempt
D. OnExternal_A add the command standby 1 priority 110.
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 222
What are the basic configuration steps to enable IS-IS?
A. Configure the network net-id command(s) under routerisis and enable IS-IS on each interface with the ip router isis command.
B. Configure the network net-id command(s) and the is-type level-1-2 command under routerisis.
C. Configure the net system-id and the network net-id commands under routerisis.
D. Configure the net system-id command under routerisis and enable IS-IS on each interface with the ip router isis command.
E. Configure the net system-id and the network net-id commands under routerisis and enable IS-IS on each interface with the ip router isis command.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 223
Which three are characteristics of IPv6? (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 header is 20 bits long.
B. An IPv6 header contains the next header field.

C. An IPv6 header contains the header checksum field.
D. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long.
E. An IPv6 header contains the protocol field.
F. IPv6 routers send RA messages.
Answer: B,D,F
QUESTION NO: 224
Which two statements are true about Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) snooping? (Choose two.)
A. IGMP snooping and Cisco Group Membership Protocol (CGMP) can be used simultaneously on a switch.
B. IGMP snooping and Cisco Group Membership Protocol (CGMP) were developed to help Layer 3 switches make intelligent forwarding decisions on their own.
C. IGMP snooping examines IGMP join/leave messages so that multicast traffic is forwarded only to hosts that sent an IGMP message toward the router.
D. IGMP snooping is enabled with theip multicast-routing global configuration command.
E. IGMP snooping is an IP multicast constraining mechanism for Layer 2 switches.
Answer: C,E

QUESTION NO: 225
How is the designated querier elected in IGMPv2?
A. The host with the lowest MAC address on a segment is designated.
B. The router with the lowest IP address on a subnet is designated.
C. The host that responds first to the election query is designated.
D. The first router to appear on a subnet is designated.

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 226
What are three key concepts that apply when configuring the EIGRP stub routing feature in a hub and spoke network? (Choose three.)
A. Only remote routers are configured as stubs.
B. A stub router should have only EIGRP hub routers as neighbors.

C. EIGRP stub routing should be used on hub routers only.
D. Spoke routers connected to hub routers answer the route queries for the stub router.
E. Stub routers are not queried for routes.
F. A hub router prevents routes from being advertised to the remote router.
Answer: A,B,E
QUESTION NO: 227
Which three IP addresses are valid multicast addresses? (Choose three.)
A. 249.1.2.3
B. 169.254.23.59
C. 238.3.3.3
D. 223.254.255.254
E. 225.1.1.1
F. 227.43.34.2
Answer: C,E,F

QUESTION NO: 228
Which statement best describes autoconfiguration for IPv6?
A. The local DHCP server will detect a new host has been added to the LAN segment and automatically send a unique IPv6 address to the new host.
B. A router connected to the local link sends a broadcast periodically to advertise the subnet and the host appends its locally configured IPv4 address to create a unique IPv6 address.
C. A host will contact its local router to receive its unique IPv6 address.
D. A router connected to the local link sends its 64 bit prefix address and the host appends its MAC address to create its unique IPv6 address.

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 229
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands would both produce the output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)


A. showglbp 10
B. showglbp standby
C. show standby
D. showglbp active
E. show standby group 10
F. showglbp disabled
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 230
Which three techniques can be used to transition from IPv4 to IPv6? (Choose three.)
A. mobile IP
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. dual stack
D. flow label
E. NAT
F. anycast
Answer: B,C,E
QUESTION NO: 231
IEEE 802.1w RSTP defines which port states?

A. Listening, Forwarding, Active, Blocking
B. Listening, Learning, Forwarding, Blocking, Disabled
C. Learning, Active, Block
D. Learning, Forwarding, Discarding

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 232 DRAG DROP
Look at the picture.

Answer:


QUESTION NO: 233
Which three statements are true regarding EIGRP? (Choose three.)
A. By default, EIGRP uses theDijkstra algorithm to determine the best path to a destination network based on bandwidth and delay.
B. To speed convergence, EIGRP attempts to maintain a successor and feasible successor path for each destination.

C. By default, EIGRP performs auto-summarization acrossclassful network boundaries.
D. EIGRP uses hellos to establish neighbor relationships.
E. EIGRP uses an area hierarchy to increase network scalability.
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 234
Which three conditions need to be present for UplinkFast to trigger a fast reconfiguration? (Choose three.)
A. The switch must be configured for one VLAN.
B. The switch must be enabled on a VLAN with switch priority configured.
C. The failure must be on the root port.
D. The switch must have at least one blocked port.
E. The switch must haveUplinkFast enabled.
F. The switch must have at least one unblocked port.
Answer: C,D,E

QUESTION NO: 235
Which IS-IS NET represents a locally administered private address?
A. 49.0001.0000.0c12.3456.00
B. 45.0004.0000.0d35.4554.00
C. 47.0010.0000.0a11.3564.00
D. 39.0040.0010.0c99.1112.00

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 236
If there are two equal cost paths to the root switch, what is the next criterion to determine the root port?
A. lowest sender bridge ID
B. lowest port ID
C. lowest time to receive BPDUs
D. highest MAC address on the receiving port

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 237
Which three IP addresses are valid multicast addresses? (Choose three.)
A. 249.1.2.3
B. 227.43.34.2
C. 223.254.255.254
D. 169.254.23.59
E. 225.1.1.1
F. 238.3.3.3
Answer: B,E,F
QUESTION NO: 238
Which command is used to change the administrative distance for EIGRP?
A. Router(config-router)# distance weight eigrp internal-distance external-distance
B. Router(config-if)# distance weight eigrp internal-distance external-distance
C. Router(config-if)# distance eigrp internal-distance external-distance
D. Router(config-router)# distance eigrp internal-distance external-distance
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 239
Which statement about Root Path Cost is true?
A. It is the Path Cost of a particular Root Port.
B. This value is the cumulative cost of all links sent from the Designated Port of the Root Bridge.
C. It is the cost sent from the Root Bridge to all non-Root bridges.
D. This value is the cumulative cost of all the links leading to the Root Bridge.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 240 CORRECT TEXT
Look at the picture.



QUESTION NO: 241 CORRECT TEXT
Look at the picture.



QUESTION NO: 242
Examine the diagram. A network administrator has recently installed the above switched network using 3550s and would like to control the selection of the root bridge. Which switch should the administrator configure as the root bridge and which configuration command must the administrator enter to accomplish this?

A. ASW13(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
B. DSW11(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
C. DSW12(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096
D. DSW12(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
E. ASW13(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096
F. DSW11(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 243
Which type of IGMP message is sent when a network client wants to join a multicast group?
A. host membership report
B. host membership notification
C. host membership query
D. host membership status
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 244
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting IS-IS routing. Currently, RTA is not receiving Link State Packets (LSPs) from RTB. What is the problem?


A. RTA and RTB are configured in different areas.
B. RTA and RTB should both be configured for is-type level-2 under routerisis.
C. RTB must be configured with the is-type level-1 command under routerisis.
D. RTA must be configured with theisis circuit-type level-1 under interface s0.
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 245
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is trying to connect to the console port of Sw2. What authentication process will the switch go through?


A. The switch will contact theSmartPort database. If the SmartPort database is unreachable, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the enable secret password.
B. The switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the local database.
C. Authentication will fail becauseSmartPort has not been enabled.
D. Authentication will fail because an IP address has not been specified for theSmartPort database.
E. The switch will attempt to authenticate using the enable secret password. If this fails, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the passwordgoaway.
F. The switch will contact theSmartPort database. If the SmartPort database is unreachable, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the local database.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 246
Which two are characteristics of the IS-IS protocol but not OSPF? (Choose two.)
A. supports demand circuit routing
B. provides for network scalability by allowing the network to be separated into areas
C. utilizes SPF algorithm
D. provides routing support for multiple network layer protocols
E. three layers of hierarchical routing

F. forms adjacencies with all neighbors
Answer: D,F
QUESTION NO: 247
A Level-2 IS can establish an adjacency with which routers? (Choose three.)
A. any Level-2 IS in any area
B. any Level-1 IS in any area
C. any Level-1/Level-2 IS in any area
D. any Level-1/Level-2 IS in the same area
E. any Level-1 IS in the same area
Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION NO: 248
Examine the BGP table. What is the correct command to summarize the listed prefixes into a single summary prefix of 192.168.12.0/22 while also allowing for the advertisement of the more specific prefixes?

A. network 192.168.12.0
B. aggregate-address 192.168.12.0 255.255.252.0 as-set
C. aggregate-address 192.168.12.0 255.255.252.0 summary-only
D. network 192.168.12.0 mask 255.255.252.0
E. network 192.168.12.0 mask 0.0.3.255
F. aggregate-address 192.168.12.0 255.255.252.0

Answer: F


QUESTION NO: 249

Which well-defined routing protocol would a network administrator configure on multicast routers when member routers are widely dispersed?
A. Protocol Independent Multicast Dense Mode (PIM-DM)
B. Core-Based Trees (CBT)
C. Protocol Independent Multicast Sparse Mode (PIM-SM)
D. Multicast Open Shortest Path First (MOSPF)
E. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 250
In which three HSRP states do routers send hello messages? (Choose three.)
A. speak
B. standby
C. active
D. learn
E. listen
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 251
What is the maximum number of HSRP standby groups that can be configured on a Cisco router?
A. 32
B. 256
C. 128
D. 16
E. 64

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 252
Based on the topology shown in the network diagram, what optional EIGRP configurations will be required in order to achieve full connectivity within AS 100?


A. Use the variance command on R3.
B. Use the EIGRP no auto-summary command on R1 and R2.
C. Use the EIGRP no auto-summary command on R3 and R4.
D. Use the passive interface command between the R3 and R1 connection and between the R3 and R2 connection.
E. Use the passive interface on the R1 and R2 interface that connects to the 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 subnet respectively.
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 253
When the BGP path selection process is being performed on a Cisco router, which BGP attribute is used first when determining the best path?
A. origin
B. local preference
C. AS-path
D. weight
E. MED
F. next-hop
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 254
Which message type was added to IGMPv2?
A. membership report

B. heartbeat
C. status report
D. join request
E. leave report
Answer: E


QUESTION NO: 255
Which statement is true concerning 6to4 tunneling?
A. An edge router must use IPv6 address of 2002::/16 in its prefix.
B. Hosts and routers inside a 6to4 site will need a special code.
C. IPv4 traffic is encapsulated with an IPv6 header.
D. The edge routers can use any locally configured IPv6 address.
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 256
A new workstation has consistently been unable to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server when the workstation boots. Older workstations function normally, and the new workstation obtains an address when manually forced to renew its address. What should be configured on the switch to allow the workstation to obtain an IP address at boot?
A. PortFast on the switch port connected to the workstation
B. UplinkFast on the switch port connected to the server
C. BackboneFast on the switch port connected to the server
D. trunking on the switch
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 257
On a multilayer Catalyst switch, which interface command is used to convert a Layer 3 interface to a Layer 2 interface?
A. switchport mode access
B. noswitchport
C. swithport access vlan vlan-id
D. switchport

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 258
Which statement best describes autoconfiguration for IPv6?
A. A router connected to the local link sends its 64 bit prefix address and the host appends its MAC address to create its unique IPv6 address.
B. A host will contact its local router to receive its unique IPv6 address.
C. A router connected to the local link sends a broadcast periodically to advertise the subnet and the host appends its locally configured IPv4 address to create a unique IPv6 address.
D. The local DHCP server will detect a new host has been added to the LAN segment and automatically send a unique IPv6 address to the new host.
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 259
Observe the partial show run command output in the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the route map configuration shown? (Choose two.)

A. The default sequence number will be 5.
B. The default sequence number will be 10.
C. Any matches are considered to be permitted.
D. Any matches are considered to be denied.
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 260
What can be determined about the HSRP relationship from the displayed debug output?


A. The preempt feature is not enabled on the 172.16.11.111 router.
B. Router 172.16.11.112 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
172.16.11.111.
C. The IP address 172.16.11.111 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.
D. Router 172.16.11.111 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
172.16.11.112.
E. Thenonpreempt feature is enabled on the 172.16.11.112 router.
F. The IP address 172.16.11.112 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 261
In an IS-IS environment, what happens when the designated IS router crashes?
A. The elected backup designated router takes the place of the DIS temporarily without the necessity of a new election, until the original DIS comes back online.
B. A new election process occurs immediately, establishing a new DIS that will remain in place indefinitely.
C. The elected backup designated router takes the place of the DIS indefinitely without the necessity of a new election.
D. A new election process occurs immediately, establishing a new DIS until a router with a higher priority or MAC address establishes an adjacency.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 262

When the BGP path selection process is being performed on a Cisco router, which BGP attribute is used first when determining the best path?
A. origin
B. next-hop
C. MED
D. AS-path
E. local preference
F. weight
Answer: F


QUESTION NO: 263
The 192.168.0.0 network is not being propagated throughout the network. Observe the BGP configuration commands from the advertising router. What is the reason the 192.168.0.0 route is not being advertised? router bgp 65111 neighbor 172.16.1.1 remote-as 65111 neighbor
172.16.2.1 remote-as 65112 network 192.168.0.0 network 10.0.0.0 ! ip route 192.168.0.0
255.255.0.0 null0
A. The network 192.168.0.0 statement is missing mask 0.0.255.255.
B. The network 10.0.0.0 statement is missing mask 255.0.0.0.
C. The network 10.0.0.0 statement is missing mask 0.255.255.255.
D. The auto-summary configuration is missing.
E. The network 192.168.0.0 statement is missing mask 255.255.0.0
Answer: E


QUESTION NO: 264
Which specification can associate VLAN groups to Spanning Tree instances to provide multiple forwarding paths for data traffic and enable load balancing?
A. IEEE 802.1w (RSTP)
B. IEEE 802.1s (MST)
C. IEEE 802.1Q (CST)
D. IEEE 802.1d (STP)
Answer: B QUESTION NO: 265


Refer to the exhibit. What happens when the router stops receiving advertisements for the 10.1.2.0/24 network?

A. The summary route will remain in the table.
B. The more specific routes will be advertised from the table.
C. 10.1.2.0/24 will still be advertised but packets destined for it will be dropped when they reach this router.
D. The summary route will be removed from the table.
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 266
What is the effect of the following configuration commands? RTB(config)#router rip RTB(config-router)#version 2 RTB(config-router)#no auto-summary
A. subnets are advertised across network boundaries
B. subnet mask information is not passed in the routing updates
C. subnets are summarized at the network boundary
D. subnets are madediscontiguous
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 267
Which two statements are true when the extended system ID feature is enabled? (Choose two.)
A. The system ID value is the VLAN ID (VID).
B. The BID is made up of the system ID (six bytes) and bridge priority value (two bytes).

C. The BID is made up of the bridge priority (four bits), the system ID (12 bits), and a bridge MAC address (48 bits).
D. The BID is made up of the bridge priority value(two bytes) and bridge MAC address (six bytes).
E. The system ID value is a hex number used to measure the preference of a bridge in the spanning-tree algorithm.
F. The system ID value is a unique MAC address allocated from a pool of MAC addresses assigned to the switch or module.
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 268
Which command will ensure that External_B will be the primary router for traffic using the gateway address of 172.16.15.20?

A. OnExternal_A add the command standby 1 priority 80.
B. OnExternal_A add the command standby 1 priority 110.
C. OnExternal_B add the command standby 1 priority 80.
D. OnExternal_B remove the command standby 1 preempt

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 269
Which two provide intra-area routing services? (Choose two.)
A. L1 ES
B. L2 IS C. L1/L2 IS

D. L2 ES
E. L1 IS
Answer: C,E
QUESTION NO: 270
A problem was reported that the 10.10.10.0/24 prefix was not injected into the local BGP table on RouterA. The following information is available from RouterA:configuration:router bgp 65001network 10.0.0.0neighbor 172.16.1.1 remote-as 65002no auto-summaryrouting table information:show ip route | include 10O 10.10.10.0/24 [110/11] via 192.168.1.1, 2d00h, Ethernet0/0Why is this prefix not in the local BGP table?
A. The network command is wrong.
B. The 172.16.1.1 neighbor is down.
C. This route is not a BGP learned route.
D. The prefix 10.10.10.0/24 is not a 'connected' route.

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 271
What number is a valid representation for the 200F:0000:0000:AB00:0000:0000:0000:0000/56 IPv6 prefix?
A. 200F:0:0:AB/56
B. 200F:0:0:AB00::/56
C. 200F::AB00/56
D. 200F::AB/56
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 272
Which of the following technologies uses a Root Link Query BPDU?
A. BackboneFast
B. UplinkFast
C. PortFast
D. STP standard

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 273
What will be the effect of applying the VLAN access map configuration on a switch?Router(config)# vlan access-map thor 10Router(config-access-map)# match ip address net_10Router(config-access-map)#action forwardRouter(config-access-map)#exitRouter(config)# vlan filter thor vlan-list 12-16
A. IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped and all other IP packets are forwarded to VLANs 12 through 16.
B. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic matching net_10 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
C. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic is forwarded, other VLAN IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped.
D. IP traffic matchingvlan-list 12-16 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 274 CORRECT TEXT
Look at the picture.



QUESTION NO: 275
What is a characteristic of a static VLAN membership assignment?
A. based on MAC address of the connected device
B. ease of adds, moves, and changes
C. easy to configure
D. VMPS server lookup
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 276
Refer to the exhibit. A workstation PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone access port. Based on the configuration in the exhibit, how will the traffic be managed?

A. The IP phone access port will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
B. The switch port Fa0/4 will trust the priority for the frames received from the PC.
C. The switch port Fa0/4 will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
D. The IP phone access port will trust the priority of the frames received from the PC.
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 277
Which two types of routes will be advertised with the EIGRP configuration as shown? (Choose two.)router eigrp 100network 10.0.0.0eigrp stub

A. static
B. dynamic
C. receive-only
D. connected
E. summary
F. stub
Answer: D,E
QUESTION NO: 278
How does 802.1q trunking keep track of multiple VLAN's?
A. encapsulates the data frame with a new header and frame check sequence
B. adds a new header containing the VLAN ID to the data frame
C. tags the data frame with VLAN information and recalculates the CRC value
D. modifies the port index of a data frame to indicate the VLAN

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 279
Which set of statements about Spanning Tree Protocol default timers is true?
A. The hello time is 2seconds.The forward delay is 10 seconds.The max_age timer is 15 seconds.
B. The hello time is 5seconds.The forward delay is 15 seconds.The max_age timer is 20 seconds.
C. The hello time is 5seconds.The forward delay is 10 seconds.The max_age timer is 15 seconds.
D. The hello time is 2seconds.The forward delay is 15 seconds.The max_age timer is 20 seconds.
E. The hello time is 2seconds.The forward delay is 20 seconds.The max_age timer is 30 seconds.
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 280
When building an IP multicast domain using PIM which mode assumes that other routers do not want to forward multicast packets for the group?
A. PIM-RP
B. IGMP snooping
C. CGMP
D. PIM-SM

E. PIM-DM
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 281
How does EIGRP advertise subnet masks for each destination network?
A. EIGRP, like IGRP and RIP, does not advertise a subnet mask for each destination network.
B. EIGRP advertises a prefix length for each destination network.
C. EIGRP advertises a fixed length subnet mask for each destination network.
D. EIGRP advertises only aclassful subnet mask for each destination network.
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 282
Which option correctly identifies the Cisco IOS switching methods in descending order from the fastest method to the slowest method?
A. process switching, CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching
B. fast switching, process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
C. CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching, process switching
D. process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching
E. process switching, fast switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
F. distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching, process switching
Answer: F

QUESTION NO: 283
What is the purpose of the eigrp stub configuration command?
A. to reduce the convergence time by enabling the EIGRP stub router to propagate the EIGRP queries from the EIGRP hub router
B. to reduce the convergence time by enabling the EIGRP stub router to also perform query requests to the EIGRP hub router
C. to increase scalability by limiting the EIGRP query range
D. to reduce the size of the routing table by blocking the D EX (External EIGRP) routes into the EIGRP stub router

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 284
Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct configuration to enable router P4 to exchange RIP routing updates with router P1 but not with router P3?

A. P4(config)# interface fa0/0P4(config-if)# neighbor 192.168.10.3P4(config-if)# passive-interface
192.168.10.34
B. P4(config)# router ripP4(config-router)# neighbor 192.168.10.34 no broadcastP4(config-router)# passive-interface fa0/0
C. P4(config)# interface fa0/0P4(config-if)# neighbor 192.168.10.3P4(config-if)# passive-interface fa0/0
D. P4(config)# router ripP4(config-router)# neighbor 192.168.10.3P4(config-router)# passive-interface fa0/0
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 285
What are two benefits provided in VTP Version 2 but NOT in VTP Version 1? (Choose two.)
A. allows active redundant links when used with spanning tree
B. reduces the amount of configuration necessary
C. saves VLAN configuration memory
D. supports Token Ring VLANs
E. allows VLAN consistency checks

Answer: D,E
QUESTION NO: 286
What is the maximum Ethernet frame size on a trunk link configured using IEEE 802.1Q encapsulation?
A. 1548 Bytes
B. 1518 Bytes
C. 1522 Bytes
D. 1496 Bytes
E. 1500 Bytes

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 287
Given the following configuration on a switch interface, what happens when a host with the MAC address of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port? switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002 switchport port-security violation shutdown
A. The host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected.
B. The host will be refused access.
C. The host will be allowed to connect.
D. The port will shut down.
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 288
Which spanning-tree feature will disable ports configured for PortFast in the event of a BPDU being received on those ports?
A. BPDU filtering
B. Root Guard
C. UDLD
D. BPDUGuard
Answer: D QUESTION NO: 289


Given the following configuration on a switch interface, what happens when a host with the MAC address of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port? switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002 switchport port-security violation shutdown
A. The host will be refused access.
B. The port will shut down.
C. The host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected.
D. The host will be allowed to connect.
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 290
Which process plays a major role in the creation of the CEF adjacency table?
A. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
B. hello packet exchange
C. NetFlow switching
D. PDU header rewrite
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 291
What action should a network administrator take to enable VTP pruning on an entire management domain?
A. enable VTP pruning on every switch in the domain
B. enable VTP pruning on a VTP server in the management domain
C. enable VTP pruning on any switch in the management domain
D. enable VTP pruning on any client switch in the domain
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 292
Given the following configuration on a switch interface, what happens when a host with the MAC address of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port? switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002 switchport port-security violation shutdown

A. The host will be allowed to connect.
B. The host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected.
C. The host will be refused access.
D. The port will shut down.
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 293
Observe the above diagram. Both R5 and R2 are performing two-way IGRP/RIP route redistribution. What behavior will R2 use with the given R2 configurations?

A. Updates about 192.168.1.0 that are learned through IGRP will be added to the routing table, but not advertised to R1.
B. Updates about 192.168.1.0 that are learned through RIP will be ignored.
C. Updates about 192.168.1.0 that are heard through the s1 interface will be ignored.
D. Updates about 192.168.1.0 will be advertised out the s0 interface.
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 294
Which three statements about STP timers are true? (Choose three.)
A. To successfully exchange BPDUs between two switches, their STP timers value (hello, forward delay, max age) must be the same.

B. If any STP timer value (hello, forward delay, max age) needs to be changed, it should at least be changed on the root bridge and backup root bridge.
C. STP timers values (hello, forward delay, max age) are included in each BPDU.
D. A switch is not concerned about its local configuration of the STP timers values. It will only consider the value of the STP timers contained in the BPDU it is receiving.
E. The root bridge passes the timer information in BPDUs to all routers in the Layer 3 configuration.
F. On a switched network with a small network diameter, the STP hello timer can be tuned to a lower value to decrease the load on the switch CPU.
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 295
What is the purpose of a rendezvous point (RP)?
A. used in PIM dense mode to create a database of all multicast sources
B. used in PIM dense and sparse mode to create a database of all multicast sources
C. acts as a meeting place for sources and receivers of multicast traffic
D. acts as the designated router for a broadcast segment when multicast routing is enabled

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 296
Which two statements are true about EIGRP manual summarization? (Choose two.)
A. When manual summarization is configured,autosummarization is automatically disabled by default.
B. The summary address is entered into the routing table and is shown to be sourced from the Null0 interface.
C. The summary address is assigned an administrative distance of 10 by default.
D. Manual summarization is configured on a per interface basis.
E. Manual summaries can be configured with theclassful mask only.
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 297
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is verifying that a CEF FIB entry exists to destination network
192.168.150.0. Given the output generated by the show ip cef and show adjacency detail commands which three statements are true? (Choose three )


A. There is a valid CEF entry for the destination network 192.168.150.0.
B. The counters (0 packets, 0 bytes) indicate a problem with the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
C. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the source IP address.
D. There is an adjacency for the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
E. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
F. The "valid cached adjacency" entry indicates that CEF will put all packets going to such an adjacency to the next best switching mode.
Answer: A,D,E
QUESTION NO: 298 DRAG DROP
Look at the picture.

Answer: QUESTION NO: 299



Which command displays statistics on EIGRP hello, updates, queries, replies, and acknowledgments?
A. debugeigrp packets
B. showip eigrp neighbors
C. showip eigrp traffic
D. showip eigrp topology
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 300
Which two table types are CEF components?(Choose two.)
A. route tables
B. forwarding information base
C. caching tables
D. neighbor tables
E. adjacency tables
Answer: B,E

QUESTION NO: 301
When STP operation is functioning normally, which statement is true about BPDUs?
A. A bridge sends only TCN BPDUs to the root bridge and no configuration BPDUs.
B. A bridge sends configuration BPDUs towards the root bridge every 15 seconds.

C. A bridge sends a TCN BPDU to the root bridge once upon initial configuration, followed by configuration BPDUs every two seconds.
D. A bridge sends configuration BPDUs towards the root bridge every two seconds
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 302
Refer to the above graphic. Switch A, the root bridge, is connected directly to Switch B over link L1 and to Switch C over link L2. The Layer 2 LAN interface on Switch C that is connected directly to Switch B is in the blocking state. If Switch C detects a link failure on the currently active link L2 on the root port, which spanning tree enhancement will allow Switch C to unblock the blocked port and transition it to forwarding without going through the listening and learning states?

A. BackboneFast
B. UplinkFast
C. PortFast
D. rapid spanning tree
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 303
When IP multicast is enabled via PIM, which mode uses the flood and prune method?
A. PIM sparse-dense
B. PIM-SM
C. Bidir-PIM
D. PIM-DM
E. PIM-RP
Answer: D QUESTION NO: 304



On a multilayer Catalyst switch, which interface command is used to convert a Layer 3 interface to a Layer 2 interface?
A. switchport
B. noswitchport
C. switchport mode access
D. swithport access vlan vlan-id
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 305
Which protocol specified by RFC 2281 provides network redundancy for IP networks, ensuring that user traffic immediately and transparently recovers from first-hop failures in network edge devices or access circuits?
A. HSRP
B. ICMP
C. IRDP
D. STP
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 306
Which of the following NSAP addresses is a private, locally administered address?
A. 48.0f01.0002.0000.0c00.1111.00
B. 49.0004.30ac.0000.3090.c7df.00
C. 39.0f01.0002.0000.0c00.1111.00
D. 52.0f01.0002.0000.0c00.1111.00
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 307
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is verifying that a CEF FIB entry exists to destination network
192.168.150.0. Given the output generated by the show ip cef and show adjacency detail commands, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)


A. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
B. There is an adjacency for the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
C. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the source IP address.
D. The counters (0 packets, 0 bytes) indicate a problem with the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
E. The "valid cached adjacency" entry indicates that CEF will put all packets going to such an adjacency to the next best switching mode.
F. There is a valid CEF entry for the destination network 192.168.150.0.
Answer: A,B,F
QUESTION NO: 308
Which two statements are true concerning IPv6? (Choose two.)
A. Mobile IP is built into IPv6 by default.
B. Like IPv4, IPv6 broadcasts are sent to all nodes on a LAN segment.
C. IPSec is mandatory and built into IPv6.
D. The leading zeros in an address format are mandatory.
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 309
Refer to the exhibit. If the configuration shown below is added to RTA, which three route entries will EIGRP advertise to neighboring routers?(Choose three.)router eigrp 10network 10.0.0.0eigrp stub


A. 10.0.0.0/8
B. 192.168.20.0/24
C. 10.1.3.0/24
D. 10.1.2.0/24
E. 10.1.1.0/24
Answer: A,C,E

QUESTION NO: 310
Which command will need to be added to External_A to ensure that it will take over if serial 0/0 on External_B fails?

A. standby 1 priority 130
B. standby 1 trackfastethernet 0/0

C. standby 1 track 10.10.10.1
D. standby 1 preempt

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 311
Switch 1:interface port-channel 1switchportswitchport access vlan 10interface fastethernet 0/1channel-group 1 mode passiveinterface fastethernet 0/2channel-group 1 mode passiveSwitch 2:interface port-channel 1switchportswitchport access vlan 10interface fastethernet 0/1channel-group 1 mode passiveinterface fastethernet 0/2channel-group 1 mode passiveGiven the switch configurations, which of the following statements is correct?

A. LACP is correctly configured and theEtherChannel will form.
B. Only one switch must be in the On mode and the other in the LACP Passive mode forEtherchannel to form.
C. One switch must be in LACP Active mode for theEtherChannel to form.
D. PAgP is correctly configured and the EtherChannel will form.
E. Each physical port in theEtherChannel must have the command switchport access vlan 10 for the EtherChannel to form.
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 312
What number is a valid representation for the 200F:0000:0000:AB00:0000:0000:0000:0000/56 IPv6 prefix?
A. 200F::AB00/56
B. 200F:0:0:AB/56
C. 200F::AB/56
D. 200F:0:0:AB00::/56
Answer: D QUESTION NO: 313



Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is trying to connect to the console port of Sw2. What authentication process will the switch go through?

A. Authentication will fail becauseSmartPort has not been enabled.
B. The switch will contact theSmartPort database. If the SmartPort database is unreachable, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the local database.
C. The switch will attempt to authenticate using the enable secret password. If this fails, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the passwordgoaway.
D. Authentication will fail because an IP address has not been specified for theSmartPort database.
E. The switch will contact theSmartPort database. If the SmartPort database is unreachable, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the enable secret password.
F. The switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the local database.
Answer: F
QUESTION NO: 314
What are three characteristics of RIPv2? (Choose three.)

A. broadcasts updates
B. multicasts updates to 224.0.0.9
C. does not support variable-length subnet mask by default
D. does not supportdiscontiguous networks by default
E. supportsdiscontiguous networks by default
F. supports variable-length subnet mask by default
Answer: B,D,F
QUESTION NO: 315
Which two statements are true about RIP? (Choose two.)
A. When configured with the version 2 command, RIP interfaces will accept version 1 and 2 updates, but will only send version 2 updates.
B. By default, RIP interfaces will accept version 1 and 2 updates, but will only send version 1 updates.
C. When configured with the version 1 command, RIP interfaces will accept version 1 and 2 updates, but will only send version 1 updates.
D. When configured with the version 2 command, RIP interfaces will only accept version 2 updates, but will send version 1 and version 2 updates.
E. By default, RIP interfaces will only accept and send version 1 updates.
F. When configured with the version 1 command, RIP interfaces will only accept and send version 1 updates.
Answer: B,F

QUESTION NO: 316
BGP contains two paths to a destination. Assuming both routes were originated locally and have an equal weight, what will be the next determining factor in choosing the best path?
A. lowest neighbor IP address
B. lowest origin code
C. lowest MED
D. shortest AS-path
E. highest local preference
Answer: E QUESTION NO: 317



Based on the network diagram and routing table output in the exhibit, which of these statements is true?

A. AlthoughinterVLAN routing is enabled, the workstations will not have connectivity to each other.
B. AlthoughinterVLAN routing is not enabled, both workstations will have connectivity to each other.
C. InterVLAN routing will not occur since no routing protocol has been configured.
D. InterVLAN routing has been configured properly, and the workstations have connectivity to each other.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 318 CORRECT TEXT
Look at the picture.




QUESTION NO: 319
A network administrator assigns a multicast address of 239.255.8.5 to an application running on a device with an Ethernet MAC address of 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80. Which Layer 2 multicast address will this device use?
A. 01.00.5e.7F.08.05
B. 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80
C. 01.00.5e.05.f1.80
D. 01.b2.7d.0a.08.05
E. ff.ff.ff.ff.ff.ff
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 320
On a 3550 EMI switch, which three types of interfaces can be used to configure HSRP? (Choose three.)
A. SVI interface
B. access port
C. routed port
D. EtherChannel port channel

E. BVI interface
F. loopback interface
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 321
What will occur when a nonedge switch port that is configured for Rapid Spanning Tree does not receive a BPDU from its neighbor for three consecutive hello time intervals?
A. RSTP information is automatically aged out.
B. The port sends a TCN to the root bridge.
C. The port moves to listening state.
D. The port becomes a normal spanning tree port.

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 322
Which two multicast IP addresses can be represented by the multicast MAC address 0100.5e0A.0A07? (Choose two.)
A. 229.138.10.8
B. 229.11.10.7
C. 228.10.10.8
D. 229.138.10.7
E. 228.10.138.7
F. 228.10.10.7
Answer: D,F

QUESTION NO: 323
Which type of IGMP message is sent when a network client wants to join a multicast group?
A. host membership query
B. host membership report
C. host membership status
D. host membership notification
Answer: B QUESTION NO: 324


Which statement is true about the STP Path Cost on a particular port?
A. When increased, it can provide higher bandwidth to a connecting port.
B. It can be modified to help determine Root Bridge selection.
C. It is known only to the local switch where the port resides.
D. Modifying it can cause TCN BPDU to be sent to the Root Bridge.
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 325
Which command displays the number of times that the OSPF Shortest Path First (SPF) algorithm has been executed?
A. showip ospf database
B. showip ospf
C. showip ospf interface
D. showip protocol
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 326
Which action could have caused the following output to appear on a switch? %SPANTREE-2-ROOTGUARDBLOCK: Port 1/1 tried to become non-designated in VLAN 77. Moved to root-inconsistent state
A. The switch is configured with Root Guard and starts receiving superior BPDUs.
B. The switch is configured with Loop Guard and stops receiving BPDUs.
C. The switch is configured withPortFast and starts receiving BPDUs.
D. The switch is configured withBackboneFast and starts receiving inferior BPDUs.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 327
Which statement is true concerning 6to4 tunneling?

A. Hosts and routers inside a 6to4 site will need a special code.
B. The edge routers can use any locally configured IPv6 address.
C. IPv4 traffic is encapsulated with an IPv6 header.
D. An edge router must use IPv6 address of 2002::/16 in its prefix.
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 328
Refer to the exhibit. The DLSwitch is a Catalyst 3550 and the ALSwitch is a Catalyst 2950. Which two configurations sequence would be used to establish an EtherChannel group? (Choose two.)

A. DLSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 - 2DLSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol pagpDLSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode auto
B. ALSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 - 2ALSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
C. ALSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 - 2ALSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol pagpALSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
D. DLSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 - 2DLSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol lacpDLSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
E. DLSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 - 2DLSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode auto
F. ALSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 - 2ALSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol lacpALSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 329 CORRECT TEXT
Look at the picture.




QUESTION NO: 330
Which two multicast IP addresses can be represented by the multicast MAC address 0100.5e0A.0A07? (Choose two.)
A. 229.138.10.7
B. 228.10.10.7
C. 229.138.10.8
D. 228.10.10.8
E. 229.11.10.7
F. 228.10.138.7
Answer: A,B