Note: The answer is for reference only, you need to understand all question.
QUESTION 1
On a standalone switch, all ports in VSAN 9 are administratively shut down. What is the operational state of VSAN 9?
A. Up
B. Initializing
C. Active
D. Suspended
E. Down
Answer: E


QUESTION 2
There are three different roles on the MDS:
Role1 allows show commands only. Role2 allows debug and configure commands, and denies show command. Role3 permits VSAN 10-30 only.
User1 belongs to Role1, Role2 and Role3. What can User1 do?
A. Show,debug, and configure on VSAN 10-30
B. Debug and configuration commands on VSAN 10-30
C. Show, debug, configure on all VSAN
D. Debug and configure commands only on all VSAN
E. Show,debug, configure and save configuration on VSAN 10-30
Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What statement is true?
A. Class of Service 1 frames are acknowledged only when requested by the sender.
B. R_RDY is the correct way to acknowledge a Class of Service 1 frame.
C. Class of Service 1 and 2 reserve 100% of the available bandwidth.
D. Class of Service 3 framesrequire an ACK1 response.
E. Class of Service 2 frames are acknowledged by an ACK response.

Answer: E


QUESTION 4
What is the purpose of the Open Fibre Control system?
A. It defines a safety mechanism for SW laser data links.
B. It specifies the maximum bit error rate for Fibre channel links.
C. It defines the distance limitation for different types of lasers.
D. It defines the mechanism in which Fibre Channel switches communicate with Gbics.
E. It defines the flow control mechanism for Fibre Channel.
Answer: A


QUESTION 5
What SW_ILS frame is used to perform Principal Switch Selection?
A. ELP
B. RDI
C. DIA
D. ESC
E. EFP
Answer: E


QUESTION 6
Which is the objective of the SW_ILS ELP frame?
A. Notify other switches they can now request domain IDs
B. Notify other switches that a principal switch has been elected
C. Exchange FSPF routing information
D. None of the above
Answer: D


QUESTION 7
Select the true statements concerning the IP address subnetting requirements of gigabit Ethernet interfaces on the IPS-8 module:

A.Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1.10 and gigabigethernet2/1.10 must be configured with IP addresses in the same subnet B.Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and gigabigethernet2/1 can be configured with IP addresses in the same subnet C.Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and gigabigethernet1/2 can not be configured with IP addresses in the same subnet D.Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and mgmt0 can not be configured with IP addresses in the same subnet E.Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1.10 and gigabigethernet2/1.12 can be configured with IP addresses in the same subnet
Answer: BD


QUESTION 8
Node is logged into port fc1/1 in VSAN 4000. If VSAN 4000 is deleted then what will happen?
A. Invalid -VSAN 4000 is not available.
B. Node will move to VSAN 1.
C. Node will move to VSAN 4095.
D. Node will move to VSAN 4094.
E. Invalid -VSAN can not be deleted until all members are removed.
Answer: D


QUESTION 9
On a standalone switch, VSAN 10 has 10 active ports. When a "no vsan 10" command is issued on the switch what is true?
A. VSAN 10 will not be deleted as it has active ports.
B. VSAN 10 will be deleted and the ports moved to VSAN 4094.
C. VSAN 10 will not be deleted and the ports moved to VSAN 4094
D. Vsan 10 is deleted and the ports moved to VSAN 4093
E. VSAN 10 will be deleted and the ports moved into VSAN 1
Answer: B


QUESTION 10
FC1/1 is a member of VSAN 1. After the command "no VSAN 1" is entered, FC1/1 will be a member of what VSAN?

A. VSAN 4094
B. VSAN 1
C. VSAN 4093
D. VSAN 0
E. VSAN 4095
Answer: B


QUESTION 11
To capture all of the RSCN traffic originating from a standalone switch with no free ports, what should be utilized?
A. SPAN
B. REMOTE SPAN
C. MDS fcanalyzer
D. Ethereal with PAA
E. debug rscn events initiators vsan 1000
Answer: C


QUESTION 12
What statement is TRUE?
A.A SPAN session can capture traffic originating from or destined for an end device, while an MDS fcanalyzer can only capture traffic originating from, or destined for, the supervisor. B.An MDS fcanalyzer can capture traffic originating from, or destined for, an end device, while a SPAN can only capture traffic originating from, or destined for, the supervisor. C.Only when an SD port detects that it is attached to a Cisco PAA (Port Analyzer Adapter) will it use Buffer to Buffer Flow Control.
D.SPAN can be used to determine why a port cannot autonegotiate to 2Gbps instead of 1Gbps. E.SPAN cannot capture traffic destined for the supervisor; the MDS fcanalyzer must be used instead.
Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which organizations produce standards related to SCSI, Fibre Channel or Fibre Channel Protocol?
A. T12 Committee

B. T10 Committee
C. T11 Committee
D. SNIA
E. Cisco Systems
Answer: BC


QUESTION 14
The committee responsible for the production and overseeing of SCSI I/O interface standards is:
A. T11
B. T10
C. ANSI
D. None of the above
E. IETF
Answer: B


QUESTION 15
The committee responsible for the production and overseeing of Fibre Channel standards is:
A. IETF
B. T11
C. ANSI
D. T10
E. None of the above
Answer: B

QUESTION 16
In a long distance link of 100KM, which is true of the desired number of BB credits?
A.More BB credits would cause excessive delay in handling the larger number of packets.
B.The fewer the BB credits there are, the less likely we are to have a packet lost in the network.
C.With fewer BB credits, the transmission pipe will not be full and this will lead to other applications getting bandwidth should they need it.
D.The FC standard defines the number of credits on a long distance link.
E.None of the above answers are correct.

Answer: E


QUESTION 17
Cisco Catalyst 6500 Multilayer LAN Switches FCIP Links Workstation MDS 9000 Cisco Catalyst 6500 Multilayer LAN Switches FCIP Links Workstation MDS 9000
Assume that all the Cat6Ks in the exhibit above are connected to the MDS 9000 IPS blades and the workstation in the picture is connected to the same Cat6k network. Can the workstation act as a management station for the MDS 9000s?

A.Yes, if the VLAN configuration on the Cat6k matches the VSAN configuration on the MDS 9000, and the Workstation is configured as part of the management VLAN
B.No, the TCP/IP traffic is terminated on the IPS blade itself, so the workstation would not be able to communicate with the MDS 9000 supervisors to be able to manage them
C.Yes, but only if IPFC is configured as well on the MDS 9000 switches
D.Yes, but only if IVR is configured on the MDS 9000
E.Yes, because it has IP connectivity to the MDS 9000 through the FCIP endpoints configured on the MDS 9000s (through the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces on the IPS modules)
Answer: B


QUESTION 18
Why might an RCF be disruptive?

A.Domain IDs are re-assigned possibly resulting in new FCIDs being assigned. B.Some older style HBAs are not able to tolerate an RCF, and will logout of the fabric. C.An RCF is not disruptive; a BF is disruptive and results in at least 1 change in Domain ID.
D.A change in principle switch is always disruptive. E.Fabric Zoning must be applied whenever an RCF occurs.
Answer: A
QUESTION 19

What command would successfully transfer the "special_config.txt" file to a workstation, PC, or File Server?
A. copy special*.txt ftp://ipaddress/path/special_config.txt
B. copy ftp://ip address/path/filename special_config.txt
C. copy ftp://bootflash:special_config.txt ip address/path/special_config.txt
D. copy bootflash:special_config.txt ftp:////special_config.txt
E. copy special_config.txt ftp://ipaddress/path/special_config.txt

Answer: D


QUESTION 20
What command would be entered to restart VSAN 100?
A. vsan 100 suspend; no vsan 100 suspend B. no vsan 100 start; vsan 100 start

C. vsan 100 restart non-disruptive
D. vsan 100 restart disruptive
E. no vsan 100 resume; vsan 100 resume
Answer: A


QUESTION 21
You are connecting 2 existing independent fabrics in VSAN 2. Fabric 1 has domains 100 and 101. Fabric 2 has domains 100 and 101. All of the switches have the below interface configuration for all ports used for ISLs. Fabric 1 has an active zoneset in VSAN 2 with one zone containing hosts Alpha, Charlie and Delta and storage devices EMC1 and Hitachi1. Fabric 2 has no active zoneset. Why did the fabrics fail to merge?
MDS9506-B1# interface fcX/Y fcdomain rcf-reject vsan 2 switchport mode E
A. The domains on Fabric 1 and Fabric 2 overlap
B. The two fabrics should merge without an issue.
C. Fabric 2 does not have an Active zoneset
D. The interfaces are not configured as trunk enabled.
E. Create any active zoneset on Fabric 2 and they will merge
Answer: A

QUESTION 22
A "system initialization" is used to perform what function on the MDS switch?
A. Recover lost "admin" password
B. Format the bootflash and erases configuration files
C. Restart supervisor module after maintenance testing.
D. Prepare standby supervisor module for system upgrade.
E. Compress existing files and restart the bootflash file system
Answer: B QUESTION 23


What is NOT a funtion of LIP?
A. Reinitialize a loop
B. Indicate loop receiver failure
C. Passive attachment to loop
D. Indicate what port to reset on loop
E. Acquire an AL_PA
Answer: C


QUESTION 24
FC protocol is a layered protocol consisting of several layers. Identify these layers in proper order of FC-0 to FC-4:
A.Upper Level Protocol Layer, Common Services Layer, Framing & Control Layer, Encode/Decode Layer, Media Layer
B.Media Layer, Framing & Control Layer, Encode/Decode Layer, Common Services Layer, Upper Level Protocol Layer
C.Framing & Control Layer, Encode/Decode Layer, Media Layer, Common Services Layer, Upper Level Protocol Layer
D.Encode/Decode Layer, Media Layer, Framing & Control Layer, Common Services Layer, Upper Level Protocol Layer
E.Media Layer, Encode/Decode Layer, Framing & Control Layer, Common Services Layer, Upper Level Protocol Layer
Answer: E

QUESTION 25
The FICON configuration files maintained on the switch enable which features to be configured?
A. Perform a port swap
B. Enable and disable ports in FICON VSANs
C. Block FICON traffic from particular ports on the switch
D. Prevent certain ports from accessing other ports
Answer: CD
QUESTION 26

Changing the VSAN policy to "vsan policy deny" and then entering "no vsan policy" will have what effect on the role being configured?
A.No effect, the "vsan policy deny" is an invalid command option. B.No effect, both commands are invalid. C.The role will be disabled due to conflicting configuration statements. D.The role will require a "vsan permit" configured to define allowed VSANs. E.No effect on the role, every vsan can execute commands allowed by the "rule" command.
Answer: E


QUESTION 27
What is FCC's first action when congestion is detected?
A. Decrease Buffer to Buffer credits on ISL
B. Decrease Buffer to Buffer credits to originating host
C. Send PQ (Path Quench) to originating MDS
D. Send PQ (Path Quench) to all MDS in Fabric
E. Send EQ (Edge Quench) to originating MDS
Answer: E


QUESTION 28
What is the maximum number of FICON VSANs that can be configured on a 9509 switch?
A. Limited only by the maximum number of VSANs configurable in the switch
B. 16
C. 1
D. 64
E. 8
Answer: E

QUESTION 29
The backup solution in which the least amount of impact is done to the database server is:
A.Shutdown the database server and backup the database to locally attached FC tape drives. B.Place the database in hot backup mode and backup over an IP network to a backup server. C.Create a host based snapshot of the database then backup the snapshot to SAN attached tape drives.

D.Create an array/network based snapshot of the database and then from a separate server backup the
snapshot. E.Place the database in hot backup mode and backup to locally attached tape drives.
Answer: D


QUESTION 30
A TL port is needed to accomplish what?
A. Create a trunk loop between 2 ports
B. Let public devices be visible to the fabric
C. Let public devices remain invisible to the fabric
D. Let private devices be visible to the fabric
E. Permit larger frames to be sent on that port
Answer: D


QUESTION 31
What Fibre Channel transport functions can be found within the FC-2 level?
A. Exchange Operation, Information Unit, and Sequence
B. Session, Exchange and Information Unit
C. Sequence, Frame and Flow Control
D. Sequence, Frame, and Information Unit
E. Exchange management, Link Control and Flow control
Answer: C
QUESTION 32
Hosts and storage are connected to 2 MDS units interconnected by ISLs in the following manner:

All default zones are set to deny and IVR is not enabled. Trunking is disabled on all of the ISLs, which reside in

VSAN 1. How many pairs of source-destination flows are possible over the ISLs in this configuration?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 1
D. 3
E. 2
Answer: E


QUESTION 33
What selection below lists the architectural levels of the Fibre Channel protocol in order from the lowest level to highest level?
A.Physical Interface, Encode/Decode and Link Control, Framing Protocol, Common Services, Protocol Mappings, Fibre Channel Protocol B.Physical Interface, Encode/Decode and Link Control, Framing Protocol, Common Services, Protocol Mappings, Upper Layer Protocol C.Physical Interface, Data Link, Network, Transport, Presentation D.Physical Interface, Encode/Decode and Device Control, Network, Transport, Upper Layer Protocol E.Physical Interface, Data Link, Network, Common Services, Upper Layer Protocol
Answer: B


QUESTION 34
Which are required for a correctly configured iSCSI initiator to log into a MDS IPS Module?
A. iSCSI License
B. iSCSI enabled
C. IP address on GigE interface and no shut
D. No shut on iSCSI interface
E. IP address on iSCSI interface
Answer: BCD

QUESTION 35
FCIP Write Acceleration most effectively addresses which disaster recovery challenge?
A. Bandwidth constraints

B. Recovery Time Objective (time to recover)
C. Load balancing
D. Tape backup over the WAN
E. Recovery Point Objective (time DR data is "behind" Production data)
Answer: E


QUESTION 36
Which two features would best improve "write" performance on a single FCIP tunnel over a 10 Mbps WAN with high delay?
A. FCIP Port Channel
B. Write Acceleration
C. Ethernet port channel
D. High-comp-ratio compression
E. Increase Buffer-to-buffer credits on FCIP interfaces
Answer: BD


QUESTION 37
FCIP Write Acceleration (FCIP-WA) is a SCSI protocol spoofing mechanism designed to improve application performance by reducing the overall service time for SCSI write I/Os and replicated write I/Os over distance. FCIP-WA is applicable for which two technologies? (Choose two.)
A. SDRF
B. FICON
C. HDS True Copy
D. XRC
Answer: AC


QUESTION 38
While in configuration mode, what command will allow a user to view interface 4 on module 2 without leaving the current mode?
A. None of the above -It is not possible to show the interface without ending configuration mode.
B. "do show interface 2/4"
C. "exit", then "port show 4 module 2"
D. "session show interface 2/4"

E. "show mod 2 int 4"
Answer: B


QUESTION 39
Which steps are required to downgrade Fabric Manager Server to an earlier or previous release?
A.Close all instances of FM/DM, run the "Uninstall" program,then re-install the previous release B.Fabric Manager Server cannot be downgraded to an earlier release C.In FM use the "Revert" tab under "Server Admin" to initiate downgrade to previous release D.Downgrade the MDS switch to the correct version of code; when Fabric Manger is opened it will
automatically downgrade to the earlier version located on the MDS E.Delete the ".cisco_mds9000" and restore earlier version from automatically created "mds_backup" directory
Answer: A


QUESTION 40
What method is used to assign a pWWN to a dynamically assigned iSCSI initiator in a MDS?
A. Assigned by system
B. Assigned by iSCSI host
C. Assigned by user in the configuration of the iSCSI Target
D. Assigned by Fibre Channel attached Storage System
E. Created with iSCSI host name, iSCSI driver and Connection ID
Answer: A

QUESTION 41
What will happen to logged information if a MDS 9216 reboots?
A. Logs are sent to Fabric Manager before MDS switch goes down and can be retrieved there.
B. Call Home function will save logs and send them after Switch comes up.
C. Logs are stored to Non Volatile RAM and can be retrieved after reboot.
D. Logs are written to flash and can be FTPed after reboot.
E. No log data is stored on the MDS switch across reboots.
Answer: C


QUESTION 42
Click the Exhibit button.
The host must see one instance of the LUN. If the primary IP path to the host fails, IO must recover with no user intervention. From the information shown in the exhibit, what is configured incorrectly on the MDS?
A. VRRP must be configured on one chassis
B. iSCSI Virtual Target primary path must be the same on both chassis
C. iSCSI Virtual Target iqn name must be the same on both chassis
D. Host must have multipathing software not to have two instance of lun at Host
E. Secondary path of iSCSI Virtual Target must be in the same VSAN
Answer: C


QUESTION 43
On an MDS FibreChannel, QOS allows traffic to be prioritized in the fabric based upon:
A. FCID, PWWN, and output interface
B. Source FCID, destination FCID, and destination LUN #
C. Source WWN, destination WWN, and destination LUN #
D. FCID, PWWN, and input interface
E. Source ID, Destination ID, and oxID
Answer: D


QUESTION 44
What answer has the correct order of steps to configure QoS for Data Traffic?
A.Enable the QoS feature, create and define class maps, create a policy map, apply the configuration, adjust DWRR weights if necessary
B.Enable the FCC feature, create and define class maps, create a policy map, apply the configuration, adjust DWRR weights if necessary
C.Enable the FCC feature, create a policy map, create and define class maps, apply the configuration, Adjust DWRR weights if necessary
D.Enable the QoS feature, create a policy map, create and define class maps, apply the configuration, Adjust DWRR weights if necessary
E.Enable the QoS feature, create and define class maps, adjust DWRR weights if necessary, apply configuration, create a policy map.
Answer: A QUESTION 45


When adding a iSCSI initiator, what is the minimum that must be configured when using iSCSI proxy initiator mode?
A.LUN masking on the storage array must be changed to allow the new iSCSI initiator pWWN to access LUN. B.The iSCSI initiator must be added with the ip address of the new iSCSI initiator. C.Zone changes must be done to add new iSCSI initiator's pWWN. D.The iSCSI virtual target must be created to permit access for the new iSCSI initiator.
E.A new VSAN must be created to add iSCSI initiator.
Answer: D


QUESTION 46
You are connecting 2 independent and existing Fibre Channel switches. Switch one has a domain ID of 1. Switch 2 has a domain ID of 2. You connect an ISL between the 2 switches. Which SW_ILS would a Non-principal switch use to ask for a Domain ID from the Principal switch?
A. ESC
B. DIA
C. EFP
D. ELP
E. RDI
Answer: E


QUESTION 47
The main differences between Coarse Wavelength Division Multiplexing (CWDM) and Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing (DWDM) are:
A. Ability to multiplex various services onto different wavelengths
B. Cost
C. The spacing between the wavelengths being multiplexed
D. The mode of fiber used for transport
E. The number of channels
Answer: BCE QUESTION 48


Click the Exhibit button. Assume that FCIP write accelerator has been enabled between MDS1 and MDS2. What will the values of X, Y and Z be in the exhibit?

A. X=50, Y=ff, Z=10
B. X=50, Y=10, Z=10
C. X=10, Y=ff, Z=10
D. X=10, Y=50, Z=10
E. X= ff, Y=ff, Z=1
Answer: C


QUESTION 49
Which capabilities must a management application support to enable automated reaction to MDS-generated call home messages?
A. Name Parsing via E-mail
B. XML-based parsing
C. HTML-based parsing
D. POPT parsing
E. GUPTA to SQL Windows
Answer: B
QUESTION 50
What settings would be required on a MDS9000 switch for proper use of a PAA?
A. PAA requires ST and SD ports.
B. PAA requires an SD port connection.

C. PAA requires a TE port to connect and must be in its own VSAN.
D. PAA requires an ethernet connection to the MDS supervisor.
E. PAA requires an SD port and must be it its own VSAN.
Answer: B
QUESTION 51
You are connecting a new switch to an existing two switch Fabric with domain IDs of 1 and 2. The new switch has a domain ID of 1. The principal switch of the existing fabric has a principal switch priority of 10 and is Domain 1. The new switch has a principal switch priority of 1 configured and has the lowest switch WWN of all 3 switches. What switch will be the principal switch after the new switch is added?
A. The switch with a domain of1 in existing Fabric
B. Merged fabric will have two principal switches.
C. The new switch
D. The switch with a domain of2 in existing Fabric
E. The new switch will not merge due to overlapping domain ID.

Answer: A
QUESTION 52
You currently have a Solaris host that is accessing a JBOD that is connected to the same switch. The Solaris host is logging I/O errors with writes to the JBOD. You want to find out the cause of the I/O errors by analyzing the traffic between the host and the JBOD. To do this you setup FCAnalyzer to run locally on the switch. However, when you setup FCAnalyzer to capture traffic you do not see any traffic between the host and the JBOD. What is a possible cause?
A. The FCanalyzer is not used for capturing traffic.
B. The FCanalyzer can only capture control traffic and not data traffic.
C. The source and/or destination of the FCAnalyzer trafficwas not defined.
D. Only FCAnalyzer remote can capture traffic between 2 device ports.

Answer: B
QUESTION 53
Click the Exhibit button. The configured domain in VSAN 8 was changed from 0x30 to 0x97 and fcdomain was then restarted with the command, fcdomain restart disruptive vsan 8 . Vsan 8 was then changed to interop mode 1. What statement is true?


A. I/O between host1-disk2 is down until the ivr vsan topology is reactivated.
B. I/O between host1-disk2 was disrupted. I/O between disk1-disk2 was not disrupted.
C. I/O between host1-disk2 is down until the ivr zoneset is reactivated.
D. I/O between host1-disk2 is down until vsan 333 is also configured for interop mode 1.
E. I/O between disk1-disk2 and host1-disk2 was disrupted.

Answer: B
QUESTION 54
What is a valid file type and name created when using the Performance Manger wizard to create a collections file for a switch named MDS2?
A. MDS2_PM.html
B. MDS2_PM.doc
C. C9216-2_06242004.xls
D. MDS2.xml
E. MDS2_PM.xls
Answer: D QUESTION 55

What zoning option is NOT allowed using iSCSI transparent mode?
A. slot/port
B. iqn (iSCSI qualified name)
C. fcalias
D. ip address
E. pWWN (port world wide name)

Answer: A
QUESTION 56
Select all of the primitive signals:
A. R_RDY
B. LIP
C. IDLE
D. NOS
E. PLOGI

Answer: AC
QUESTION 57
Which are possible ways to control access to targets on MDS with iSCSI proxy-initiator mode?
A. Zoning with an IQN name of the iSCSI initiator
B. RBAC in iSCSI VSAN
C. Specify the virtual target with an allowed IP address of the iSCSI initiator
D. Zoning with an IP address of the iSCSI initiator
E. Zoning with pwwn
Answer: CE
QUESTION 58
Which are functions of the Domain Identifier Assigned (DIA) ILS?
A.It indicates that the receiving Switch can proceed requesting a Domain Identifier. B.It indicates that the principal switch selection is started, but a principal switch has not been identified yet.

C.It indicates that the principal switch selection and address assignment phase is completed and the fabric is operational.
D.It indicates that a Request Domain Identifier ILS has been received by principal switch.
E.It indicates that a Principal Switch has been selected, and that the upstream neighbor Switch has been assigned a Domain Identifier.

Answer: AE
QUESTION 59
The Domain Identifier Assigned (DIA) SW_ILS command indicates which two of these? (Choose two.)
A.a principal switch has been selected and the upstream neighbor switch has been assigned a domain identifier B.the principal switch selection and address assignment phase has been completed and the fabric is operational
C.the receiving switch can proceed to request a domain identifier D.the principal switch selection has been started, but a principal switch has not been identified yet
E.a Request Domain Identifier SW_ILS frame has been received by the principal switch

Answer: AC
QUESTION 60
Host ports belonging to a VSAN which is moved to a suspended state will be:
A. Disabled
B. Transferred to the Default VSAN
C. Transferred to VSAN4094
D. Transferred to the Isolated VSAN
E. Suspended
Answer: A
QUESTION 61
Host ports belonging to a VSAN which is moved to a suspended state will be disabled.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A QUESTION 62

FC-SP is configured between two MDS switches. What happens if MDS_Switch_One's FC port is configured for "fc-sp auto-passive" mode and MDS_Switch_Two's FC port is also configured for "fc-sp auto-passive" mode?
A. No FC-SP authentication protocol exchange (SW_RJT sent)
B. Link brought down to "invalid attachment" state
C. No FC-SP authentication protocol exchange (No Auth-Messages sent)
D. FC-SP authentication protocol exchange performed
E. Auto-passive mode is not supported

Answer: C
QUESTION 63
Your company has configured FC-SP between two Cisco MDS switches. What will happen after configuring the Fibre Channel ports for MDS1 and MDS2 in "fc-sp auto-passive" mode?
A. auto-passive mode is not supported
B. the link will be brought down to the "invalid attachment" state
C. an FC-SP authentication protocol exchange will be performed
D. no FC-SP authentication protocol exchange will be performed (no AUTH messages sent)

Answer: D
QUESTION 64
FCID 0x600000 is not a valid FCID in what interop mode?
A. MDS Native Mode
B. Interop Mode 2
C. It is valid in all modes.
D. Interop Mode 1
E. Interop Mode 3
Answer: D
QUESTION 65
You have a storage array connected to interface fc1/5 that has LUN masking enabled. You want to be able to see all the LUNs configured behind this port using the MDS "discover scsi-target local os linux lun" command. What command will give you the PWWN you need to use to configure the storage array so that the "show scsi-target lun" command will display the LUNs?

A. sho flogi database interface fc1/5
B. show scsi-target internal driver
C. show interface fc1/5
D. show wwn switch
E. show scsi-target pwwn

Answer: E
QUESTION 66
What statement is correct for licensing?
A.The grace period is set to 120 days from the first occurrence of using any licensed feature without a license in SAN-OS 1.3(4a).
B.The grace period is set to 100 days from the first occurrence of using any licensed feature without a license in SAN-OS 1.2.
C.Grace period is removed in SAN-OS 1.3(4a).
D.There is no grace period for counted licenses.
E.The grace period is set to 60 days from the first occurrence of using any licensed feature without a license in SAN-OS 1.3(4a).
Answer: A
QUESTION 67
With FC-SP, when an "Initiator" sends a "AUTH Negotiate" the "Responder" replies with?
A. DHCHAP Challenge
B. DHCHAP Success
C. AUTH Negotiate
D. DHCHAP Negotiate
E. AUTH Access Request
Answer: A
QUESTION 68
In Raid level 5: A. The disks need to be mirrored

B. The disks cannot be striped
C. The parity is kept on a separate disk
D. The parity is distributed on data disks as stripes
E. There is no parity in this raid level

Answer: D
QUESTION 69
Given: Host-------MDS SwitchA-------------MDS switchB----------Storage Array with an FC Analyzer connected to Switch B What port types are required to be configured on the switches in this network for proper use of SPAN to monitor traffic flow from host to storage array?
A. ST ports on both switchA and switchB
B. Span port on switch A and a TE port on switchB
C. SD port on switchA and a ST port on switchB
D. ST port on switchA and a SD port on switchB
E. SD ports on both switchA and on switchB

Answer: D
QUESTION 70
What are the 3 types of Ordered Sets defined in Fibre Channel?
A. Offline sequence, online sequence, and link reset
B. Frame delimiters, primitive signals, and primitive sequences
C. Start of frame, end of frame, and idle
D. None of the above
E. K28.5, D16.0, and D31.2
Answer: B
QUESTION 71
What is true regarding access control to iscsi virtual targets on the MDS?
A. You may not limit access to the target by IP subnet of the initiator.
B. By default, the target is not advertised on Gigabit Ethernet interfaces.
C. You may limit access to the target by initiator IQN name.

D. FC zoning is the only way to limit access to the target.

Answer: C
QUESTION 72
What is the default FSPF cost of a 4-gigabit link?
A. 4000
B. 1000
C. 2000
D. 250
E. 500

Answer: D
QUESTION 73
There are two 2 Gbps FC links formed into a single port channel connecting two switches together. What is the initial FSPF cost and resulting FSPF cost of the port channel if one of the FC links fails?
A. 250; 500
B. 500; 500
C. 500; 250
D. 1000; 1000
E. 250; 250

Answer: E
QUESTION 74
In the above picture, Switch 3 and Switch 5 are not IVR capable switches. All the ISLs are 1 GB links. Switches 2, 4, and 6 are IVR-capable switches. What is the FSPF costs from Switch 1 to reach Points1, 2 and 3?


A. 500, 1500, 2500
B. 501, 1503, 2505
C. 1001, 3002, 5002
D. 501, 1502, 2502
E. 1000, 3000, 5000

Answer: C
QUESTION 75
What is the main purpose for Loop Initialization Protocol?
A. For indicating an open in the loop and to do a bypass
B. Sent by fabric controller to determine if loop is attached
C. To initialize a loop
D. To initialize a loop and send SCN
E. To reset the loop by sending AP_PD

Answer: C
QUESTION 76
What statement regarding LUN zoning is accurate?
A.The MDS LUN zoning feature cannot be used when the LUN masking feature is used on a storage subsystem.
B.When LUN 0 is not included within azone, data traffic to LUN 0 (for example, READ, WRITE) is still supported.
C.When LUN 0 is not included within azone, control traffic to LUN 0 (for example, REPORT_LUNS, INQUIRY) is still supported.
D.None of the above
E.LUN zoning is a standards based feature that can be used to connect to another switch while in interop mode.

Answer: C
QUESTION 77
Two switches are merging together. During principal switch selection, Switch A sends a frame indicating it has an empty domain ID list. Switch B sends a frame indicating that there are previously allocated domain IDs. Switch A has a lower priority value and a lower WWN. What should occur next?

A. Switch A becomes principal switch and initiates a BF.
B. SwitchA isolates and remains a standalone switch.
C. SwitchA uses the values it received from Switch B for the currently elected principal switch.
D. Switch A becomes the principal switch and initiates a RCF.
E. Not enough information is given.

Answer: C
QUESTION 78
Select the TRUE statement regarding FCIP compression:
A.Compression must be enabled at both ends of an FCIP tunnel. B.Compression has 3 modes, high-throughput, high-compression, and high-bandwidth. C.Compression is configured per tunnel. D.Compression requires anEnterprise license. E.Compression is performed by the MDS Active supervisor prior to transmission on the GE port.

Answer: C
QUESTION 79
What SCSI command does a target send to an initiator after the initiator sends the target a write command?
A. Write Ready
B. FLOGI
C. RSCN
D. B2B Credit Decrement
E. Transfer Ready
Answer: E
QUESTION 80
Which three descriptions are true about FCIP Tape Acceleration? (Choose three.)
A. It increases tape backup speed by compressing data.
B. Cisco MDS switches proxy transfer ready signals to the hosts to start sending data.
C. It uses TCP window management and a sliding window for flow control.
D. It reduces the processing time for each IO by 2 RTT.
Answer: BCD QUESTION 81

What statement regarding zoneset distribution on a MDS switch is true?
A.The "zoneset distribute all" command distributes the full zoneset along with the active zone set.
B.All of the above
C.Zoneset distribution (full or active) is configured on a per switch basis.
D.By default, interop mode 1, zoneset databases are only distributed between MDS switches.
E.All Cisco MDS 9000 switches distribute active zone sets when new E port links come up or when a new zone set is activated in a VSAN.

Answer: E
QUESTION 82
Click the Exhibit button.

What module combination per site will fulfill the requirements for this solution? (Note: Non-disruptive upgrades must be fully supported at each site.)
A. 2 x 32 port module 2 x IPS-8 module
B. 3 x 16 port module 2 x IPS-8 module
C. 1 x 16 port module 1 x 32 port module 1 x IPS-8 module
D. 3 x 16 port module 1 x IPS-8 module
E. 1 x 16 port module 1 x 32 port module 2 x IPS-8 module

Answer: E
QUESTION 83
When using IVR traversing a FCIP link, what is not required?

A. Two or more VSANs in configuration
B. Transit VSAN over FCIP link
C. InterVSAN zoneset active for host to access storage
D. Border switch will be member of at least two VSANs

Answer: B
QUESTION 84
Which are true statements about the Receiver_Transmitter timeout value (R_T_TOV)?
A.It is a timer, by default 100ms, used for detecting a protocol error condition.
B.It is used to time events occurring on a single link.
C.It is a value for the R_T_TOV is negotiated between the N_Port and the Fabric, during the Fabric Login as one of the Common Service Parameters exchanged.
D.It is a timer equal to 2 X E_D_TOV that is used as the timeout value for determining when to reinstate a Recovery_Qualifier.
E.It is a timer, by default 100ms, used by the receiver logic to detect Loss-of-Synchronization.

Answer: BE
QUESTION 85
What statement most accurately describe how Domain ID allocation works on a MDS switch configured for multiple VSANs?
A.An MDS switch configured with multiple VSANs must have unique domain Ids configured for each VSAN that has been defined.
B.VSANs allow duplicate domain Ids to be used in the same VSAN by switches that ISL connect to each other.
C.Domain Ids must be unique in a VSAN, but the same domain ID can be used for multiple VSANs on a single switch.
D.VSANs have no impact on domain Ids allocation. Each switch has one, and only one domain ID no matter how many VSANs are configured.
E.None of the above
Answer: C
QUESTION 86
When transporting full 2148-byte Fibre Channel frames over long distances, which are true?

A. Three buffer-to-buffer credits are required for every1 km of distance to support 2 Gbps.
B. One buffer-to-buffer credit is required for every2 km of distance to support 1 Gbps.
C. One buffer-to-buffer credit is required for every1 km of distance to support 2 Gbps.
D. Two buffer-to-buffer credits are required for every2 km of distance to support 1 Gbps.
E. Two buffer-to-buffer credits are required for every1 km of distance to support 2 Gbps.

Answer: BC
QUESTION 87
Read only zones on MDS switches are implemented using:
A. SCSI I/O operation type
B. LUN binding
C. LUN trespass
D. LUN mapping
E. LUN masking

Answer: A
QUESTION 88
What conditions will trigger a port to perform the Link Initialization Protocol?
A. Power On
B. Internal Reset
C. SHUT admin command
D. LOGO ELS command received
E. RSCN received
Answer: AB
QUESTION 89
Which are effects of a Build Fabric (BF) ILS?
A.The BF causes a new principal switch selection to happen.
B.The BF helps to resolve overlapping domain identifiers.
C.The BF causes a non-disruptive reconfiguration of the fabric.
D.The BF causes the change of all the addresses assigned in the fabric while holding data traffic, to avoid traffic loss.
E.The BF causes a disruptive reconfiguration of the fabric.


Answer: AC
QUESTION 90
Network Data Management Protocol (NDMP) is used primarily for:
A. Backing up Network Attached Storage (NAS) devices
B. Synchronizing databases between multiple vendors
C. Mirroring file systems between disk subsystems over an IP network
D. Coordinating hierarchical storage management
E. A common protocol and API to provision storage for different subsystem vendors

Answer: A
QUESTION 91
Access control for multiple hosts connecting through the same iSCSI Proxy Initiator to different LUNs on the same storage port is controlled with:
A. CHAP authentication
B. LUN zoning
C. LUN security or mapping on the storage array
D. PWWN zoning
E. iSCSI virtual target configuration
Answer: E
QUESTION 92
The MDS FICON portaddress "prohibit" subcommand:
A.Is VSAN-specific
B.Cannot be applied to a FCIP interface
C.Causes the port to start transmitting the OLS primitive sequence
D.Can be applied to the CUP
E.Does not prohibit symmetrically; if you prohibit Port 0 from talking to Port 15. You must also explicitly prohibit Port 15 from talking to Port 0
Answer: AB QUESTION 93

FC analyzer is recommended for use with which types of captures?
A.Class F frames from FC switch to FC switch B.Used with SPAN function to capture FC Frames C.Can be used to send captured frames remotely out the management 10/100 interface for ethereal. D.FC frames from initiator to FC switch E.FC frames from initiator to target

Answer: ACD
QUESTION 94
What is the correct FCID for the CUP device, given the following command:
fcdomain domain static vsan 20
and all other options set to default?
A. 0x14FFFF
B. 0x14FE00
C. 0x200000
D. 0x20FE00
E. 0x20FEFE

Answer: B
QUESTION 95
When attaching to the following switch vendor, a VC_Ready flow control may have to be disabled and B2B Flow control enabled:
A. Vixel
B. Brocade
C. McData
D. InRange
E. Qlogic
Answer: B
QUESTION 96

While attaching to Brocade, a VC_Ready flow control may have to be disabled and B2B Flow control enabled.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
QUESTION 97
Click the Exhibit button. What is the maximum rate at which a host with a 2Gb/s HBA can write to a disk with a 2Gb/s fibre channel adapter if it must traverse a three port, 1Gb/s per link portchannel if srcID/dstID load balancing is configured?

A. 3Gb/s
B. 4Gb/s
C. 1Gb/s
D. 3.2Gb/s
E. 2Gb/s

Answer: C
QUESTION 98
Click the Exhibit button. What is the maximum rate at which a host with a 2Gb/s HBA can write to a disk with a 2Gb/s fibre channel adapter if it must traverse a three port, 1Gb/s per link portchannel if srcID/dstID load balancing is configured?


A. 1Gb/s
B. 2Gb/s
C. 3Gb/s
D. 3.2Gb/s
E. 4Gb/s

Answer: A
QUESTION 99
Click the Exhibit button. In the Exhibit, one interface is in a degraded state because the trunk is not fully active. What interface is in the degraded state?

A. 1/1
B. 2/15
C. 1/5
D. 1/4
E. 2/2

Answer: C
QUESTION 100
Click the Exhibit button. Using the switch default DWRR weights 50:30:20, traffic from host 20:02:00:75:C1:00:83:22 will be serviced what percentage (more or less) differently from other data traffic sourced in VSAN 10?


A. 50% more than
B. 30% less than
C. 20% more than
D. 50% less than
E. It will be serviced equally.

Answer: A
QUESTION 101
What must be eliminated to make migration of storage with a HP-UX host non-disruptive?
A. Speed changes to Host
B. FC_ID changes to the Target port
C. FC_ID changes to the Host port
D. Default zone deny
E. Changes to Host name

Answer: B
QUESTION 102
What statement is NOT correct based on the display output below? MDS1# show ivr vsan-topology active AFID SWITCH WWN Active Cfg. VSANS
1 20:00:00:05:30:00:7a:de * yes yes 202,205 1 20:00:00:0c:30:6c:24:40 yes yes 205,298 Total: 2 entries in active IVR VSAN-Topology
Current Status: Inter-VSAN topology is ACTIVE Last activation time: Sat Feb 21 00:03:42 2004
A. The wwn of MDS1 is20:00:00:05:30:00:7a:de

B. VSAN 205 is the transit VSAN
C. The wwn of MDS1 is20:00:00:0c:30:6c:24:40
D. VSAN 298 and 202 are edge VSANs
E. IVR topology is activated onSat Feb 21 00:03:42 2004

Answer: C
QUESTION 103
"SCSI LUN discovery" is triggered automatically when:
A. The switch has dual supervisors
B. A 16 port FC Line card installed in an MDS switch
C. An ASM module is installed in an MDS switch
D. An IPS module is installed in an MDS switch
E. A CSM module is installed in an MDS switch

Answer: CDE
QUESTION 104
What term is used to identify the special characters used in Fibre Channel Encoding?
A. D28.5
B. K28.5
C. 3b/4b
D. 8b/10b
E. idle
Answer: B
QUESTION 105
What is the correct configuration to place initiator ABC.iqn into VSANs 3 and 66 only?
A. iscsi initiator name ABC.iqn vsan 3 66
B. iscsi initiator name ABC.iqn no vsan 1 vsan 3 vsan 66
C. iscsi initiator name ABC.iqn vsan member vsan 3,66
D. iscsi initiator name ABC.iqn vsan 3 vsan 66
E. iscsi initiator name ABC.iqn vsan 3 -66
Answer: B QUESTION 106

What Switch Fabric Internal Link services (SW_ILS) command indicates if the FCIP connection is a E-Port or a B-Port?
A. EPP
B. ELP
C. ESC
D. EFP
E. LSU

Answer: B
QUESTION 107
What standard association is working in the definition of the iSCSI and Fibre Channel protocols respectively?
A. FCIA, IETF
B. SNIA, IETF
C. SNIA, T11
D. FCIA, SNIA
E. IETF, ANSI

Answer: E
QUESTION 108
Which non-disruptive method should be used to view the PLOGI of a FC host to a FC target on the same MDS switch?
A. Use an external FCanalyzer on the target port and debug tools on the host system
B. Run fcanalyzer local
C. Span the host port and the target port to a SD port and use a PAA or FC analyzer
D. Run debug plogi on both the Host interface and the storage interface
E. Span the host port and the target port to the mgmt interface and use Ethereal to analyze
Answer: C
QUESTION 109
In a DH-CHAP enabled port, what is required of a host before it can access the port?

A. An Enterprise license must be loaded on each host to authorize fabric access.
B. Dual HBA support must be configured to support security protocol
C. Host must be connected to an interface in the VSAN range of 100-199
D. Host must have a HBA installed that supports DH-CHAP protocol
E. Host must be running RADIUS or TACACS+ to support server authentication.

Answer: D
QUESTION 110
A reason for persistent binding to be enabled on an HBA is to provide what benefit?
A. To configure a user specified PWWN to the HBA
B. To allocate the same FCID to a fibre channel device
C. To allocate the same domain ID to a switch in a VSAN
D. To prevent other hosts from accessing a specific target
E. To assign the same SCSI target ID to a storage device's PWWN

Answer: E
QUESTION 111
What configuration command enables all discovered storage to be available for iSCSI?
A. enable fc targets dynamic
B. fc-target import iscsi
C. iscsi import target fc
D. iscsi target enable fc
E. iscsi virtual-target all

Answer: C
QUESTION 112
The host attached to MDS-1 at site A needs to access the disk attached to MDS-2 at site B. MDS-2 is part of a multi-switch fabric. The distance between the two sites is 600 km. What feature could stop fabric reconfiguration changes in site B from disrupting devices connected to MDS-1?
A. Switch to Switch authentication using Fibre Channel Security Protocol (FC-SP)
B. Inter-VSAN Routing
C. FCIP with Special Frame option

D. FCIP Write Acceleration
E. IP Access Lists

Answer: B
QUESTION 113
What statement is NOT correct for FCIP compression?
A. High-throughput and high-comp-ratio mode may be configured simultaneously.
B. FCIP compression uses LZS compression algorithm.
C. FCIP compression is dependent on the type of data compressed.
D. By default FCIP compression is disabled.
E. FCIP compression has to be configured under FCIP interface.

Answer: A
QUESTION 114
In Raid 0+1 the loss of a single drive:
A. Reduces the array redundancy to that of a Raid level 0
B. Does not affect the redundancy of the array
C. Has no affect what so ever on the array
D. Reduces the performance of the array
E. Same level of redundancy as that of a Raid 1+0

Answer: A
QUESTION 115
When a port channel that is trunking a given VSAN is quiesced, frames are lost. What can be inferred about this VSAN?
A. In-Order Delivery is enabled for the VSAN.
B. Flow-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN.
C. The VSAN is a FICON VSAN.
D. QoS is enabled for the VSAN.
E. Exchange-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN.
Answer: A QUESTION 116

What ordered set is used to determine the Class of the frame?
A. SOF
B. LIP
C. TYP
D. SYN
E. COF

Answer: A
QUESTION 117
During principal switch selection and the domain ID assignment, all frames are flooded to a destination ID of this well known fibre channel address:
A. FF.FF.FB
B. FF.FF.FE
C. FF.FF.FD
D. FF.FF.FC
E. FF.FF.FA

Answer: C
QUESTION 118
MDS Interop mode 2 will interoperate with what legacy Fibre Channel switch below?
A. Inrange FC/9000
B. Brocade 3800 core PID mode 0
C. Brocade 12000 core PIDmode 1
D. McData 3900
E. Qlogic Sanbox
Answer: B
QUESTION 119
The purpose of the SW_ILS ELP frame is to:
A. Notify other switches they can now request domain IDs

B. Notify other switches that a principal switch has been elected
C. Exchange FSPF routing information
D. None of the above

Answer: D
QUESTION 120
What can be configured on a FCIP Profile?
A. TCP port number, write-accelerator, compression ratio
B. TCP port number, sack-enable, Max and Min bandwidth
C. Max and Min bandwidth, peer-info, compression ratio
D. Passive mode, peer-info, compression ratio
E. Sack-enable, TCP port number, peer-info

Answer: B
QUESTION 121
You have a host with an HBA that can only be a N_Port. You configured the MDS port that you will connect to the HOST as a F port. Which primitive sequences will be used in the link Initialization between the host and the MDS port?
A. OLS
B. LRR
C. Selective Reset LIP
D. Initialization LIP
E. LR

Answer: ABE
QUESTION 122
On the 9120 an additional ISL is required and ports 1-4 and 6 are already occupied. What additional port can be used?
A. None -the 9120 can only use ports 1-4 for ISLs.
B. 8
C. 7
D. 5
E. 9


Answer: E
QUESTION 123
Click the Exhibit button. In the Exhibit, one interface is in a degraded state because the trunk is not fully active. What interface is in the degraded state?

A. 1/5
B. 2/15
C. 1/1
D. 1/4
E. 2/2

Answer: A
QUESTION 124
You are connecting 2 independent and existing switches. Switch one has a domain ID of 1, Switch 2 has a domain ID of 2. An ISL is connected between the 2 switches. Both switches support FSPF routing protocol. During ISL initialization only ELP and ESC were exchanged before one of the switches crashed. What has NOT been exchanged?
A. Principal switch priority of the switches
B. Type of routing protocol that the switches support
C. Flow control parameters for the 2 E_ports
D. Trunking configuration of the ISL port
E. WWN of the 2 switches


Answer: A
QUESTION 125
Identify the Physical Variant Identifier that correctly describes the following physical interface: longwave laser (1300nm), long-distance, double-speed, single-mode fiber:
A. 200BaseLX-FC
B. IEEE802.1x
C. 200-SM-LL-L
D. 200-LW-SM-L
E. LW-L-200-SM

Answer: C
QUESTION 126
How many FCIP connections can be supported on an IPS-8 blade with 2 ports for use in iSCSI?
A. 18 FCIP connections
B. 24 FCIP connections
C. 22 FCIP connections
D. 6 FCIP connections
E. 8 FCIP connections

Answer: B
QUESTION 127
Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit what additional steps are needed to create a graphical representation of only "Class F" traffic on interface fc1/4?


A.None, because all fields displayed in the FC Interface Monitor will be graphed
B.Using the mouse, highlight required fields then select the type of graph
C.Change the monitor interval to auto, highlight required fields,then select the type of graph
D.On the monitor window, highlight interface fc1/3 and press delete; then under the protocol tab select "Filter" for "Class F", and select the type of graph
E.None, because Class "F" traffic cannot be displayed in graph form for an ISL

Answer: B
QUESTION 128
Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit what additional steps are needed to create a graphical representation of only "Class F" traffic on interface fc1/4?


A.None, because Class "F" traffic cannot be displayed in graph form for an ISL B.Change the monitor interval to auto, highlight required fields,then select the type of graph C.On the monitor window, highlight interface fc1/3 and press delete; then under the protocol tab select "Filter"
for "Class F", and select the type of graph D.None, because all fields displayed in the FC Interface Monitor will be graphed E.Using the mouse, highlight required fields then select the type of graph

Answer: E
QUESTION 129
ip access-list acl1 permit ip any any ip access-list acl1 deny tcp 10.1.1.1 0.0.0.0 eq port telnet any ip access-list acl1 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq port telnet any ip access-list acl1 deny icmp any 10.1.1.1 ip access-list acl1 permit icmp 10.0.0.0 0.0.255.255 any ip access-list acl1 deny udp any any interface mgmt0 ip access-group acl1 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 Given the above IP access list configured on MDS, Which are true?


A. MDS can not telnet to host 10.0.1.1
B. MDS mgmt0 can not access tftp server using UDP
C. MDS mgmt 0 can ping host 10.0.1.1
D. Host 10.0.1.1 can not ping with ICMP to MDS mgmt0
E. Host 10.0.1.1can telnet to MDS 10.1.1.1

Answer: CE
QUESTION 130
ip access-list acl1 permit ip any any ip access-list acl1 deny tcp 10.1.1.1 0.0.0.0 eq port telnet any ip access-list acl1 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq port telnet any ip access-list acl1 deny icmp any 10.1.1.1 ip access-list acl1 permit icmp 10.0.0.0 0.0.255.255 any ip access-list acl1 deny udp any any interface mgmt0 ip access-group acl1 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
Given the above IP access list configured on MDS, Which are true?
A. MDS mgmt0 can not access tftp server using UDP
B. MDS can not telnet to host 10.0.1.1
C. Host 10.0.1.1can telnet to MDS 10.1.1.1
D. MDS mgmt 0 can ping host 10.0.1.1
E. Host 10.0.1.1 can not ping with ICMP to MDS mgmt0

Answer: CD
QUESTION 131
Following an outage, a FICON administrator swaps the ports using the port swap command for the first time on an MDS in VSAN 10.

Label Before After CH-1 fc 1/1 fc 2/15 CH-2 fc 1/2 fc 2/16 CU-1 fc 2/15 fc 1/3 CU-2 fc 2/16 fc 1/4
Following the swap below, what sequence of commands under ficon vsan 10 CLI submenu will prevent any communication between the entities labeled as CH-2 and CU-2, but allow all other entities to exchange frames on the VSAN?
A. port address 0x2E; prohibit portaddress 0x03
B. port address 0x2F; prohibit portaddress 0x03
C. port address 0x2F; prohibit portaddress 0x04
D. port address 0x01; prohibit portaddress 0x2F
E. port address 0x01; prohibit portaddress 0x2E

Answer: D
QUESTION 132
Which conditions must exist for a FICON-enabled VSAN with a CUP device on an MDS 9509 switch, assuming that fibre channel zones are not used to control access to FICON-attached devices?
A. Default zone permit
B. In-order delivery of frames
C. CUP resides in a zone in the active zoneset.
D. Source_ID/Destination_ID/Exchange_ID load balancing
E. Fabric binding

Answer: ABE
QUESTION 133
During principal switch selection and the domain ID assignment, all frames are flooded to a destination ID of this well known fibre channel address:
A. FF.FF.FD
B. FF.FF.FE
C. FF.FF.FC
D. FF.FF.FA
E. FF.FF.FB


Answer: A
QUESTION 134
Before you can successfully enable the Call Home feature, which of the following must be true?
A. Enterprise license installed
B. snmp-server contact name defined
C. callhome transport email smtp-server defined
D. snmp-server location defined
E. callhome site-id defined

Answer: B
QUESTION 135
What feature or command does not need to be enabled or performed on every switch implementing RSPAN?
A. switchport mode ST
B. fc-tunnelenable
C. Trunk protocolenable
D. interface vsan
E. ip routing

Answer: A
QUESTION 136
What is NOT a capability of RBAC in the MDS?
A.Create rules for commands on a physical port level B.Have three define roles and operations access created (Security Administrator, SAN Administrator and SAN
Operator) C.To define roles on a per VSAN basis D.Allowed to synchronize to a RADIUS server for user access and authentication E.Define roles with specific allowed commands to be executed by users within these roles
Answer: A
QUESTION 137
What method of load balancing is flow based?

A. D_ID, D_ID
B. S_ID, D_ID
C. S_ID, D_ID, OX_ID
D. MDS does not support flow based load balancing

Answer: B
QUESTION 138
The function of "Boot Loader" during system startup is to?
A. Load last saved running configuration
B. none of the above
C. Uncompress loaded kickstart software
D. Runs power-on self test and memory test
E. Load and run system image

Answer: C
QUESTION 139
What statement is NOT correct for Inter Vsan Routing?
A.When using the IVR feature, all border switches in a given fabric must be Cisco MDS switches. B.IVR is not supported in any interop modes. C.Non-MDS switches may be present in the transit VSAN(s) if the interop mode 1 option is enabled. D.Inter-VSAN control traffic that is allowed includes Switch-to-Switch FSPF routing information. E.On Cisco MDS 9000 switches you can configure up to 200 IVZs and 2000 IVZ members.
Answer: B
QUESTION 140
What is the correct order (from lowest to highest) of the layers of the Fibre Channel protocol?
1 = Physical 2 = Mapping to ULP 3 = Common Services 4 = Signaling Protocol 5 = Encoding/decoding

A. 1,5,2,3,4
B. 1,3,4,5,2
C. 1,4,5,3,2
D. 1,5,4,3,2
E. 1,4,5,2,3

Answer: D
QUESTION 141
What statement is NOT correct for FCIP compression?
A. High-throughput and high-comp-ratio mode may be configured simultaneously.
B. By default FCIP compression is disabled.
C. FCIP compression is dependent on the type of data compressed.
D. FCIP compression has to be configured under FCIP interface.
E. FCIP compression uses LZS compression algorithm.

Answer: A
QUESTION 142
While in configuration mode, what command will allow a user to view interface 4 on module 2 without leaving the current mode?
A."show mod 2 int 4" B."do show interface <type>2/4" C."session show interface <type>2/4" D."exit", then "port show 4 module 2" E.None of the above -It is not possible to show the interface without ending configuration mode.
Answer: B
QUESTION 143
Correct Fibre Channel Point to Point network topologies are::
A. A host connected to a host
B. A host connected directly to a Fibre Channel hub
C. A host connected to a storage array
D. A Fibre Channel Hub connected to a Fibre Channel Switch


Answer: AC
QUESTION 144
You have a Host that needs to find all target devices that supports SCSI in the fabric. What is the D_ID of the frame to query for this information?
A. 0xFFFFFC
B. 0xFFFFFE
C. 0xFFFFFF
D. 0xFFFFFD
E. 0xFFFFFA

Answer: A
QUESTION 145
What primitive is used on an arbitrated loop when a device is attempting to connect?
A. IDLE
B. LIP
C. ARB
D. NOS
E. Online

Answer: B
QUESTION 146
You have a legacy JBOD that uses copper DB-9 connecters. You want to connect your JBOD to a Fiber only Fibre Channel switch. You want to convert the DB-9 connection to multi mode Fiber Optics. What device would you use?
A. GBIC
B. MIA
C. HSSC
D. DUAL SC
E. SFP
Answer: B QUESTION 147

What is NOT a capability of RBAC in the MDS?
A.Create rules for commands on a physical port level
B.Define roles with specific allowed commands to be executed by users within these roles
C.Allowed to synchronize to a RADIUS server for user access and authentication
D.To define roles on a per VSAN basis
E.Have three define roles and operations access created (Security Administrator, SAN Administrator and SAN Operator)

Answer: A
QUESTION 148
What is FALSE about traffic shaping implemented by the MDS 9000 FCIP TCP stack?
A.The shaper works by sending packets at a rate that is consumable by the downstream network, based on the configured minimum and maximum bandwidth parameters.
B.If the FCIP path has a Gigabit or more of dedicated bandwidth available, then shaping is not required.
C.Traffic shaping is particularly useful in conjunction with compression because it paces the flow of compressed data on the wire reacting to different per-packet compression rates.
D.Traffic shaping is always required, regardless of the bandwidth available on the FCIP path.
E.It uses variable rate, per-flow shaping when sending data.
Answer: D
QUESTION 149
Which MDS switches participating in IVR must have IVR enabled?
A. All of the switches in edge VSANs and transit VSANs
B. Only border switches
C. Only edge switches and border switches
D. All of the switches
E. All of the edge switches, border switches and all switches in transit VSANs
Answer: B
QUESTION 150
Before you can successfully enable the Call Home feature, which of the following must be true?

A. snmp-server location defined
B. callhome site-id defined
C. Enterprise license installed
D. snmp-server contact name defined
E. callhome transport email smtp-server defined

Answer: D
QUESTION 151
A Host has just been implicitly logged off a Fabric. Which are the possible primitive sequences that the host either transmitted or received?
A. LIP
B. NOS
C. OLS
D. LRR
E. LR

Answer: BC
QUESTION 152
FICON-enabled nodes send a Fabric Login (FLOGI) extended link service command to the well known Fibre Channel Service address of:
A. FF.FF.FD
B. FF.FF.FA
C. FF.FF.FC
D. None of the above; fabric login only occurs with Open System nodes
E. FF.FF.FE
Answer: E
QUESTION 153
What zoning option is valid in interop mode 2 and 3 with a mixed vendor fabric?
A. nWWN
B. lun zoning
C. fcid
D. sWWN

E. domain / port

Answer: E
QUESTION 154
Using Device Manager, how can zoning be enabled between Fibre Channel members in the same VSAN?
A.Click on the menu toolbar "FC" -> "VSAN" -> "Zones" to create zones.
B.Click on the menu toolbar "Interface" -> "FC F/FL/TL" -> "Zones".
C.Device Manager does not do Fibre Channel Zoning.
D.Right-Click on any live ports and click on "devices" it will list all enabled devices. Select any devices and click on "Zones".
E.Click on the menu toolbar "Admin" -> "Zones"

Answer: C
QUESTION 155
What do ARB, R_RDY and IDLE have in common?
A. They are Primitive Signals as defined is FC-SW & FC-GS.
B. They are Primitive Signals as defined in FC-PH & FC-AL.
C. They are used to determine signal loss on a Fibre Channel Physical Connection.
D. They are Primitive Sequences as defined in FC-PD & FC-AL.
E. They are Primitive Sequences found on aLoop.
Answer: B
QUESTION 156
The IPS iSCSI gateway has two forwarding modes. An advantage of using "pass-thru" mode is?
A. IPS creates only one initiator to reduce configuration.
B. IPS converts and forwards one frame at a time which keeps latency low.
C. IPS converts and forwards full iSCSI PDU to the Target.
D. IPS uses fixed MSS for constant payload to reduce latency.
Answer: B
QUESTION 157

Src-Id Dst-Id Ox-Id 0x0f0001 0x0fae12 1 0x0f0001 0x0fae13 2 0x0f0002 0x0cae12 1 0x0f0002 0x0cae13 2 0x0c0003 0x0cab12 1 0x0c0003 0x0cab12 2
The flows above are active within a 2 switch fabric. There are 6 ISLs in a Port Channel between the two switches. What is the maximum number of links used by source-destination based and source-destination-exchange based load balancing, respectively?
A. 1 for source-destination, 2 for source-destination-exchange
B. 5 for source-destination, 6 for source-destination-exchange
C. 2 for source-destination, 2 for source-destination-exchange
D. 6 for source-destination, 6 for source-destination-exchange
E. 3 for source-destination, 2 for source-destination-exchange

Answer: C
QUESTION 158
A Fabric Zone Merge Failure between fabric A and fabric B will result if:
A.None of the above
B.A zone in fabric A contains 3 members, while the same zone name in fabric B contains 4 members. C.Zone names used in fabric A are 10 characters, while the zone names in fabric B contain less than 10
characters. D.The active zonesets in both fabric A and fabric B are an exact match before the merge is attempted. E.The active zoneset in fabric A has more zones than the active zoneset in fabric B.
Answer: B
QUESTION 159
Correct Fibre Channel Point to Point network topologies are::
A. A Fibre Channel Hub connected to a Fibre Channel Switch
B. A host connected directly to a Fibre Channel hub
C. A host connected to a storage array
D. A host connected to a host


Answer: CD
QUESTION 160
Which statements are true about a cascaded FICON topology?
A. Separate ISLs must be dedicatedto FICON traffic .
B. It requires Fabric binding to be configured in all the switches.
C. Two-byte link addressing is mandatory.
D. Only one hop (ie: traversing 2 switches) is supported.
E. Persistent FCIDs must be enabled.

Answer: BCD
QUESTION 161
Which apply to the Error Detection Timeout value (E_D_TOV)?
A.It is a timer, by default 2 seconds, used for detecting a protocol error condition.
B.An action should be taken in less than the E_D_TOV period after the transmission of consecutive Data frames within a single sequence.
C.It is a timer, by default 100ms, used by the receiver logic to detect Loss-of-Synchronization.
D.It is a timer used as the timeout value for determining when to reinstate a Recovery Qualifier.
E.During the Fabric Login, E_D_TOV is negotiated between the N_Port and the Fabric as one of the Common
Service Parameters exchanged.

Answer: ABE
QUESTION 162
What is true about MDS FCIP Profiles?
A. FCIP profile is not required if only one FCIP interface is used.
B. Only one FCIP Interface per profile.
C. FCIP Profile is assigned to a GiGE interface.
D. FCIP profile contains the assigned IP address to which it is bound.
E. The Profile IDs must match the FCIP interface ID.
Answer: D
QUESTION 163

A customer has an existing production fabric with Brocade and McData FC switches intermixed. When adding
an MDS 9000 switch, what MDS interop mode would be required? (Topology: McData 6400 -(ISL) -Brocade12000 -(ISL) --MDS)
A. Interop 1
B. Open Fabric Mode
C. Interop 2
D. Interop 3
E. Native

Answer: A
QUESTION 164
What statement is NOT correct for Inter Vsan Routing?
A.When using the IVR feature, all border switches in a given fabric must be Cisco MDS switches. B.On Cisco MDS 9000 switches you can configure up to 200 IVZs and 2000 IVZ members. C.IVR is not supported in any interop modes. D.Inter-VSAN control traffic that is allowed includes Switch-to-Switch FSPF routing information. E.Non-MDS switches may be present in the transit VSAN(s) if the interop mode 1 option is enabled.

Answer: C
QUESTION 165
9509 has one IPS-8 line card installed in slot 1, and a 16-port line card installed in slot 3. What is the FICON port number of interface fc 3/3?
A. 0x43
B. 0x42
C. 0x22
D. None of the above
E. 0x23
Answer: B
QUESTION 166
An FCIP profile can be shared by how many FCIP interfaces?
A. 4

B. 0
C. 3
D. 1
E. 2

Answer: C
QUESTION 167
A vty terminal type can be changed to vt100 by what method or command?
A. From configuration mode enter "terminal vty 0-4 type vt100"
B. None -the vty terminal type cannot be changed.
C. From EXEC level enter "terminal terminal-type vt100
D. From configuration mode enter "line 0-4 type vt100"
E. From EXEC level enter "line mode terminal-type vt100"

Answer: C
QUESTION 168
What statement is true with regard to VSANs and pWWWN zones?
A. Zones limit unicast, multicast, and broadcast traffic
B. Zones enforce membership only at the source and destination ports
C. Routing, naming, and zoning protocols are not available on a per VSAN basis
D. Zones enforce membership at each E port, source port, and destination port
E. None of these statements are true

Answer: B
QUESTION 169
What is the correct order (from lowest to highest) of the layers of the Fibre Channel protocol? 1 = Physical 2 = Mapping to ULP 3 = Common Services 4 = Signaling Protocol 5 = Encoding/decoding
A. 1,4,5,3,2
B. 1,5,2,3,4
C. 1,3,4,5,2
D. 1,5,4,3,2
E. 1,4,5,2,3


Answer: D
QUESTION 170
Fabric Manager Server entitlement is required for which two features?
A. Call Home Events and Continuous MDS Health Monitoring
B. Graphing FC interface statistics and opening Multiple Device Managers
C. IP Access Control List and Centralized fabric discovery services
D. FC Aliases and Interop-mode 3
E. Performance Manager and Multiple physical fabric management

Answer: E
QUESTION 171
Which statements are true about a cascaded FICON topology?
A. Only one hop (ie: traversing 2 switches) is supported.
B. It requires Fabric binding to be configured in all the switches.
C. Separate ISLs must be dedicatedto FICON traffic .
D. Persistent FCIDs must be enabled.
E. Two-byte link addressing is mandatory.

Answer: ABE
QUESTION 172
A customer has an existing production fabric with Brocade and McData FC switches intermixed. When adding an MDS 9000 switch, what MDS interop mode would be required? (Topology: McData 6400 -(ISL) -Brocade12000 -(ISL) --MDS)
A. Native
B. Interop 1
C. Interop 3
D. Interop 2
E. Open Fabric Mode
Answer: B
QUESTION 173

What is used for In-band management of MDS switches?
A. IP over Ethernet
B. VRRP
C. IPFC
D. DNS
E. FCIP

Answer: C
QUESTION 174
Click the Exhibit button.




Choose the diagrams which depict cascaded FICON topologies currently supported by IBM.
A. Diagram C
B. Diagram E
C. Diagram B
D. Diagram A
E. Diagram D

Answer: ACD
QUESTION 175
Click the Exhibit button. Choose the diagrams which depict cascaded FICON topologies currently supported by IBM.


A. Diagram C
B. Diagram A
C. Diagram E
D. Diagram B
E. Diagram D

Answer: ABD
QUESTION 176
What statement is true?
A. ISL can not link a VSAN between two MDS switches.

B. ISL can not be in a Port Channel.
C. ISL can only connect VSAN 1.
D. EISL can not be in a Port Channel.
E. EISL frames have an additional header.

Answer: E
QUESTION 177
During an E-Port initialization, what internal link service is used to exchange Link Parameters and the operating environment of the two interconnecting ports as well as the capabilities of the switches connected by them?
A. SW_RSCN
B. ELP
C. DIA
D. EFP
E. ESC

Answer: B
QUESTION 178
AAA(TACACS+, Radius) protocols can not be used to authenticate and/or authorize what on MDS?
A. dhchap for fabric security
B. Telnet and Console access
C. SSH
D. RBAC
E. All the above
Answer: E
QUESTION 179
What is true about MDS FCIP Profiles?
A. Only one FCIP Interface per profile.
B. FCIP profile contains the assigned IP address to which it is bound.
C. FCIP profile is not required if only one FCIP interface is used.
D. FCIP Profile is assigned to a GiGE interface.
E. The Profile IDs must match the FCIP interface ID.


Answer: B
QUESTION 180
In a scenario with three ISLs between two switches, a single host in VSAN 5 on switch A, and a single storage device on switch B in the same VSAN. What would be the effect on the ISLs if Flow based load balancing option was enabled in VSAN 5?
A. Each subsequent frame will use the least utilized link, based on FCC.
B. All frames between source and destination would follow same link for given flow.
C. Each subsequent frame will use a different link.
D. Flow based load balancing is not enabled for an individual VSAN.

Answer: B
QUESTION 181
While in configuration mode, what command will allow a user to view interface 4 on module 2 without leaving the current mode?
A. "session show interface <type>2/4"
B. "exit", then "port show 4 module 2"
C. "do show interface <type>2/4"
D. None of the above -It is not possible to show the interface without ending configuration mode.
E. "show mod 2 int 4"

Answer: C
QUESTION 182
What zoning option is valid in interop mode 2 and 3 with a mixed vendor fabric?
A. sWWN
B. domain / port
C. nWWN
D. lun zoning
E. fcid
Answer: B
QUESTION 183

On the 9120 an additional ISL is required and ports 1-4 and 6 are already occupied. What additional port can be used?
A. None -the 9120 can only use ports 1-4 for ISLs.
B. 8
C. 9
D. 5
E. 7

Answer: C
QUESTION 184
What statement is true with regard to VSANs and pWWWN zones?
A. None of these statements are true
B. Zones enforce membership only at the source and destination ports
C. Zones limit unicast, multicast, and broadcast traffic
D. Routing, naming, and zoning protocols are not available on a per VSAN basis
E. Zones enforce membership at each E port, source port, and destination port

Answer: B
QUESTION 185
In Raid 0+1 the loss of a single drive:
A. Does not affect the redundancy of the array
B. Reduces the performance of the array
C. Same level of redundancy as that of a Raid 1+0
D. Has no affect what so ever on the array
E. Reduces the array redundancy to that of a Raid level 0
Answer: E
QUESTION 186
Which three items are true about the functioning of the TCP slowstart algorithm? (Choose three.)
A.Immediately after the TCP connection has been initiated or after a long period of idle, it makes sure that new packets are sent at the same rate at which acknowledges are returned. B.It slows down the transmission rate of the sender when congestion in the network is detected.

C.It causes a linear drop of the transmitter window size every time an ACK is lost. D.It causes an exponential growth of the transmitter window size every time an ACK is received.

Answer: ABD
QUESTION 187
Which conditions must exist for a FICON-enabled VSAN with a CUP device on an MDS 9509 switch, assuming that fibre channel zones are not used to control access to FICON-attached devices?
A. CUP resides in a zone in the active zoneset.
B. Default zone permit
C. Fabric binding
D. Source_ID/Destination_ID/Exchange_ID load balancing
E. In-order delivery of frames

Answer: BCE
QUESTION 188
You are connecting 2 existing Fabrics. Fabric 1 has Domains 97,100. Fabric 2 has Domains 100 and 101. When an ISL is connected between the 2 Fabrics, the new Domain IDs for the newly merged Fabric are 97, 100, 101, 102. What SW_ILS command is generated to allow for the switches to accept a new domain ID?
A. RCF
B. BF
C. ELP
D. EFP
E. ESC

Answer: A
QUESTION 189
A target device was just taken off line for maintenance. What ELS would be generated for applicable devices in the same zone to notify that the target port has gone down?
A. RSCN
B. PRLI
C. FLOGI
D. RNID
E. LS_RJT


Answer: A
QUESTION 190
Correct Fibre Channel Point to Point network topologies are::
A. A host connected to a host
B. A host connected to a storage array
C. A Fibre Channel Hub connected to a Fibre Channel Switch
D. A host connected directly to a Fibre Channel hub

Answer: AB
QUESTION 191
Which prerequisites must be configured before enabling FICON?
A. Static Domain IDIn Order Delivery
B. Fabric Binding Static Domain ID
C. Fabric Binding In Order Delivery Static Domain ID
D. Fabric Binding Persistent FCID Static Domain ID
E. Persistent FCID Static Domain ID

Answer: C
QUESTION 192
Before you can successfully enable the Call Home feature, which of the following must be true?
A. callhome site-id defined
B. snmp-server contact name defined
C. callhome transport email smtp-server defined
D. Enterprise license installed
E. snmp-server location defined

Answer: B
QUESTION 193
When a port channel that is trunking a given VSAN is quiesced, frames are lost. What can be inferred about this VSAN?

A. Exchange-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN.
B. In-Order Delivery is enabled for the VSAN.
C. QoS is enabled for the VSAN.
D. The VSAN is a FICON VSAN.
E. Flow-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN.

Answer: B
QUESTION 194
MDS authentication method configuration:
tacacs+ enable tacacs-server host 10.1.1.1 aaa authentication login default group tgroup aaa group server tacacs+ tgroup server 10.1.1.1
User "admin" is configured on the tacacs+ server with password "admin123", and MDS is configured with CLI user "admin" and password "admin" locally -both as group "network-admin".
What happens when the user logs into MDS with the username "admin" password "admin"?
A. Authentication succeed with local database, granted with role "network-admin"
B. Authentication failed with tacacs+ server, access denied
C. None above
D. Authentication failed with tacacs+ server, but granted access with role "network-operator"
E. Authentication succeed with local database, granted with role "network-operator"
Answer: B
QUESTION 195
In Raid 0+1:
A. The disks are striped and then mirrored
B. The disks are just mirrored
C. The disks are mirrored and then striped
D. The disks are just striped
E. Two arrays are striped
Answer: A QUESTION 196

In a DH-CHAP enabled port, what is required of a host before it can access the port?
A. An Enterprise license must be loaded on each host to authorize fabric access.
B. Host must be running RADIUS or TACACS+ to support server authentication.
C. Host must be connected to an interface in the VSAN range of 100-199
D. Dual HBA support must be configured to support security protocol
E. Host must have a HBA installed that supports DH-CHAP protocol

Answer: E
QUESTION 197
What statement is NOT correct for Inter Vsan Routing?
A. Non-MDS switches may be present in the transit VSAN(s) if the interop mode 1 option is enabled.
B. When using the IVR feature, all border switches in a given fabric must be Cisco MDS switches.
C. On Cisco MDS 9000 switches you can configure up to 200 IVZs and 2000 IVZ members.
D. Inter-VSAN control traffic that is allowed includes Switch-to-Switch FSPF routing information.
E. IVR is not supported in any interop modes.

Answer: E
QUESTION 198
What method of load balancing is flow based?
A. S_ID, D_ID
B. MDS does not support flow based load balancing
C. D_ID, D_ID
D. S_ID, D_ID, OX_ID
Answer: A
QUESTION 199
With FCC enabled, after detecting congestion, an MDS switch performs what action?
A.It sends an edge quench message to the switch which is the source of the congestion. B.It sends RSCNs to the end device, which is the source of the congestion as logging into anameserver will

slow down the device.
C.It increases TCP window size on all FCIP tunnels in the path. D.It increases the amount of performance buffers. E.It sends an SW-RSCN to the switch, which has the source of the congestion.

Answer: A
QUESTION 200
You are looking at a trace for FLOGI frame. What would the value of the R_CTL Field be in the Frame header knowing that a FLOGI frame is an Extended Link service request.
A. 0x23
B. 0x12
C. 0x02
D. 0x03
E. 0x22

Answer: E
QUESTION 201
The IPS iSCSI gateway has two forwarding modes. An advantage of using "pass-thru" mode is?
A. IPS creates only one initiator to reduce configuration.
B. IPS converts and forwards one frame at a time which keeps latency low.
C. IPS converts and forwards full iSCSI PDU to the Target.
D. IPS uses fixed MSS for constant payload to reduce latency.

Answer: B
QUESTION 202
A switch boot failure can be caused by a corrupted image or corrupted bootflash file system. In the event of a corrupted bootflash filesystem which steps could be used to access BIOS so the system could be booted via TFTP?
A. Interrupt the boot sequence bypressing "ctrl ]" or ESC to enter BIOS setup.
B. Interrupt the boot sequence by pressing "ctrl C" to accessswitch(boot)# prompt
C. Interrupt the boot sequence by pressing "ctrl C" to enter BIOS setup
D. Interrupt the boot sequence by pressing "ctrl X" to enter BIOS setup
E. Supervisor cannot recover from corrupted bootflash. The card must be replaced.


Answer: C
QUESTION 203
What is TCP fast recovery?
A.It is an algorithm that initiates slow start instead of congestion avoidance after fast retransmit sends what appears to be the missing segment.
B.It is an algorithm that starts congestion avoidance instead of slow start after fast retransmit sends what appears to be the missing segment.
C.It is an algorithm that after a new connection is established with a host on another network, initializes the congestion window to one segment and each timean ACK is received, increases the congestion window by one segment
D.It is an algorithm that uses fast retransmit when a missing segment is detected.

Answer: B
QUESTION 204
Identify all the correct attributes of 8b/10b encoding scheme used by fibre channel:
A. It generates special characters beyond the eight-bit code space.
B. Provides variable bit, byte and word rates.
C. It facilitates a sufficient number of one-to-zero transitions to enable clock recovery.
D. It maintains DC balance.
E. It detects all transmission errors.
Answer: ACD
QUESTION 205
MDS Interop mode 2 will interoperate with what legacy Fibre Channel switch below?
A. Brocade 12000 core PIDmode 1
B. Brocade 3800 core PID mode 0
C. Qlogic Sanbox
D. McData 3900
E. Inrange FC/9000
Answer: B QUESTION 206

Two switches are merging together. During principal switch selection, Switch A sends a frame indicating it has an empty domain ID list. Switch B sends a frame indicating that there are previously allocated domain IDs. Switch A has a lower priority value and a lower WWN. What should occur next?
A.SwitchA isolates and remains a standalone switch. B.Switch A becomes principal switch and initiates a BF. C.Switch A becomes the principal switch and initiates a RCF. D.SwitchA uses the values it received from Switch B for the currently elected principal switch. E.Not enough information is given.

Answer: D
QUESTION 207
What Fibre Channel header field indicates the frame is a Link Control frame?
A. R_CTL
B. F_CTL
C. CS_CTL
D. DF_CTL
E. TYPE

Answer: A
QUESTION 208
What Fibre Channel header field indicates the frame is a Link Control frame?
A. R_CTL
B. CS_CTL
C. DF_CTL
D. F_CTL
E. TYPE

Answer: A
QUESTION 209
What method of replication requires the remote subsystem to acknowledge an IO before the local subsystem provides an acknowledgement to the host?

A. Synchronous
B. Bi-synchronous
C. Asynchronous
D. Unsynchronous
E. Semi-synchronous

Answer: A
QUESTION 210
AAA(TACACS+, Radius) protocols can not be used to authenticate and/or authorize what on MDS?
A. dhchap for fabric security
B. Telnet and Console access
C. RBAC
D. SSH
E. CUP

Answer: E
QUESTION 211
FICON-enabled hosts send a Query Security Attribute (QSA) extended link service command to the well known Fibre Channel Service address of:
A. FF.FF.FE
B. FF.FF.FC
C. FF.FF.FD
D. FF.FF.F7
E. FF.FF.FA

Answer: C
QUESTION 212
What port type can be used on a Fibre Channel switch when connecting a Fibre channel Hub that has one host attached to the hub and it is on a public network?
A. FLP
B. FabricLoop
C. TL

D. Loop Fabric
E. F

Answer: B
QUESTION 213
A Brocade 12000 in its native corePID mode (1) is connected to VSAN 1009 on an MDS. What is the correct output of the "show vsan 1009" command?
A.vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:Brocade Native loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
B.vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:default loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
C.vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:2 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
D.vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:3 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
E.vsan 1009 information name:VSAN1009 state:active interoperability mode:1 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up

Answer: D
QUESTION 214
What is the effect of a packet/frame loss on SAN Extension transport such as FCIP, DWDM and CWDM?
A.Only for CWDM a frame loss will cause the application to abort and restart the SCSI sequence.
B.A frame loss on SAN Extension connections will never directly affect the application because it is handled directly by the switches terminating the FCIP, DWDM or CWDM links.
C.A frame drop on SAN Extension connections will always affect the application (that will abort and restart the SCSI sequence).
D.A packet loss on a FCIP, DWDM and CWDM link does cause the application to abort and restart the SCSI sequence.
E.A packet loss on a FCIP link does not cause the application to abort and restart the SCSI sequence, while a frame loss on DWDM and CWDM does.

Answer: E
QUESTION 215
What method of replication requires the remote subsystem to acknowledge an IO before the local subsystem provides an acknowledgement to the host?

A. Synchronous
B. Asynchronous
C. Bi-synchronous
D. Semi-synchronous
E. Unsynchronous

Answer: A
QUESTION 216
To ensure FCID persistency is persistent, what needs to be configured?
A. Static VSAN ID
B. Static port ID
C. Static FC_ID
D. Static Domain ID
E. Static port map

Answer: D
QUESTION 217
A customer needs SAN extension for a distance of 200 kilometers for a mission-critical application. Assuming the customer owns the dark fibers between the 2 locations, what technology can provide the best reliability, performance, and scalability?
A. FCIP over dedicated leased line
B. Single mode dark fiber with long wave GBIC/SFP
C. CWDM with failover protection by application
D. DWDM with BLSR (bidirectional line switched ring)
Answer: D
QUESTION 218
Correct Fibre Channel Point to Point network topologies are::
A. A host connected to a host
B. A Fibre Channel Hub connected to a Fibre Channel Switch
C. A host connected to a storage array
D. A host connected directly to a Fibre Channel hub


Answer: AC
QUESTION 219
What is the correct order (from lowest to highest) of the layers of the Fibre Channel protocol? 1 = Physical 2 = Mapping to ULP 3 = Common Services 4 = Signaling Protocol 5 = Encoding/decoding
A. 1,3,4,5,2
B. 1,5,4,3,2
C. 1,4,5,3,2
D. 1,5,2,3,4
E. 1,4,5,2,3

Answer: B
QUESTION 220
What ordered set is used to determine the Class of the frame?
A. COF
B. LIP
C. SYN
D. TYP
E. SOF

Answer: E
QUESTION 221
When a port channel that is trunking a given VSAN is quiesced, frames are lost. What can be inferred about this VSAN?
A. The VSAN is a FICON VSAN.
B. Exchange-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN.
C. Flow-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN.
D. QoS is enabled for the VSAN.
E. In-Order Delivery is enabled for the VSAN.
Answer: E QUESTION 222

Which apply to the Error Detection Timeout value (E_D_TOV)?
A.It is a timer used as the timeout value for determining when to reinstate a Recovery Qualifier.
B.An action should be taken in less than the E_D_TOV period after the transmission of consecutive Data frames within a single sequence.
C.It is a timer, by default 100ms, used by the receiver logic to detect Loss-of-Synchronization.
D.During the Fabric Login, E_D_TOV is negotiated between the N_Port and the Fabric as one of the Common Service Parameters exchanged.
E.It is a timer, by default 2 seconds, used for detecting a protocol error condition.

Answer: BDE
QUESTION 223
What parameter does not need to be compatible for a port-channel to come up between 2 switches?
A. Speed
B. Port set to (PC) or port-channel mode
C. Port allowed VSAN list
D. Trunk mode
E. Port VSAN

Answer: B
QUESTION 224
You connect 2 switches together with an ISL. Which frames would be used for negotiations between the 2 E_Ports?
A. PLOGI
B. FLOGI
C. RDI
D. ESC
E. ELP
Answer: DE
QUESTION 225
The purpose of the IBM Control Unit Port (CUP) protocol is to: A. Allow switches from different vendors to connect and interoperate

B. Define storage peripheral devices to an IBM mainframe
C. Provide redundancy between multiple mainframe sysplexes
D. Define the method by which an IBM mainframe communicates to storage
E. Provide in-band management of the switch by the mainframe

Answer: E
QUESTION 226
When does a FCIP Interface need to be configured as B-Port?
A.B-Port does not apply to FCIP interfaces because it is a mode that needs to be configured if an interface is connected to a Brocade switch. B.B-Port is the way the FCIP interface needs to be configured if the source GigEthernet interface is connected to a Cat6k with MSFC for backward compatibility.
C.A FCIP link, as defined in the FC-BB (Fibre Channel Backbone) standard, is always configured as B-Port, and consequently this is the default configuration on the MDS 9000 as well.
D.When the other end of the FCIP link is a PA-FC-1G module on a 7200/7400 series E.There are no practical reasons to configure the FCIP interface as a B-Port instead of an E-Port.

Answer: D
QUESTION 227
Select the default SNMP userid and password on the basis of a new switch and just powering up the system.
A. admin/admin123
B. cisco/cisco
C. admin/admin
D. None of the above

Answer: D
QUESTION 228
You have a legacy JBOD that uses copper DB-9 connecters. You want to connect your JBOD to a Fiber only Fibre Channel switch. You want to convert the DB-9 connection to multi mode Fiber Optics. What device would you use?
A. MIA
B. SFP

C. HSSC
D. DUAL SC
E. GBIC

Answer: A
QUESTION 229
FC timers E_D_TOV, R_A_TOV and D_S_TOV:
A. Cannot be changed
B. Can be changed only for the entire switch and not VSANs
C. Can be set to be different for each VSAN
D. Can be set only on IVR enabled switches
E. Only R_A_TOV timer can be set for individual VSANS

Answer: C
QUESTION 230
A switch boot failure can be caused by a corrupted image or corrupted bootflash file system. In the event of a corrupted bootflash filesystem which steps could be used to access BIOS so the system could be booted via TFTP?
A. Interrupt the boot sequence by pressing "ctrl C" to accessswitch(boot)# prompt
B. Interrupt the boot sequence by pressing "ctrl C" to enter BIOS setup
C. Supervisor cannot recover from corrupted bootflash. The card must be replaced.
D. Interrupt the boot sequence bypressing "ctrl ]" or ESC to enter BIOS setup.
E. Interrupt the boot sequence by pressing "ctrl X" to enter BIOS setup

Answer: B
QUESTION 231
MDS3_9509# install all system bootflash:m9500-sf1ek9-mz.1.3.4.bin kickstart bootflash:m9500-sf1ek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
Verifying image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin [####################] 100% --SUCCESS
Verifying image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9-mz.1.3.4.bin [####################] 100% --SUCCESS

Extracting "slc" version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9-mz.1.3.4.bin. [####################] 100% --SUCCESS
Extracting "ips" version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9-mz.1.3.4.bin. [####################] 100% --SUCCESS
Extracting "system" version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9-mz.1.3.4.bin. [####################] 100% --SUCCESS
Extracting "kickstart" version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin. [####################] 100% --SUCCESS
Extracting "loader" version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin. [####################] 100% --SUCCESS

A.The "rolling-downgrade" for module 2 requires a second "slc" to be hit-less.
B.No reason -the downgrade is non-disruptive and hit-less.
C.Module 3 is an IPS-8 card, which only supports non-disruptive upgrades.
D.The supervisor module requires a BIOS downgrade, which is disruptive.
E.Module 3 is an IPS-8 and the switch does not have a second IPS-8 card for route diversity which could provide a "stable" downgrade.

Answer: E

QUESTION 232
A customer needs SAN extension for a distance of 200 kilometers for a mission-critical application. Assuming the customer owns the dark fibers between the 2 locations, what technology can provide the best reliability, performance, and scalability?
A. DWDM with BLSR (bidirectional line switched ring)
B. FCIP over dedicated leased line
C. CWDM with failover protection by application
D. Single mode dark fiber with long wave GBIC/SFP

Answer: A
QUESTION 233
You have a host with an HBA that can only be a N_Port. You configured the MDS port that you will connect to the HOST as a F port. Which primitive sequences will be used in the link Initialization between the host and the MDS port?
A. LRR
B. Initialization LIP
C. Selective Reset LIP
D. OLS
E. LR

Answer: ADE
QUESTION 234
A customer has an existing production fabric with Brocade and McData FC switches intermixed. When adding an MDS 9000 switch, what MDS interop mode would be required? (Topology: McData 6400 -(ISL) -Brocade12000 -(ISL) --MDS)
A. Native
B. Interop 2
C. Interop 1
D. Open Fabric Mode
E. Interop 3
Answer: C
QUESTION 235

When a port channel that is trunking a given VSAN is quiesced, frames are lost. What can be inferred about this VSAN?
A. Flow-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN.
B. Exchange-based load balancing is configured for the VSAN.
C. In-Order Delivery is enabled for the VSAN.
D. QoS is enabled for the VSAN.
E. The VSAN is a FICON VSAN.

Answer: C
QUESTION 236
A vty terminal type can be changed to vt100 by what method or command?
A. From configuration mode enter "line 0-4 type vt100"
B. From EXEC level enter "line mode terminal-type vt100"
C. None -the vty terminal type cannot be changed.
D. From configuration mode enter "terminal vty 0-4 type vt100"
E. From EXEC level enter "terminal terminal-type vt100

Answer: E
QUESTION 237
In a scenario with three ISLs between two switches, a single host in VSAN 5 on switch A, and a single storage device on switch B in the same VSAN. What would be the effect on the ISLs if Flow based load balancing option was enabled in VSAN 5?
A. Each subsequent frame will use the least utilized link, based on FCC.
B. All frames between source and destination would follow same link for given flow.
C. Flow based load balancing is not enabled for an individual VSAN.
D. Each subsequent frame will use a different link.
Answer: B
QUESTION 238
What does MDS FC-SP functionality mode "auto-active" represent?
A. Port will actively listen, but will not initiate authentication.
B. Port will initiate FC-SP authentication with TACACS server as default.

C. Port will use default of no authentication.
D. Port will successfully complete FC-SP authentication only if remote end is in passive mode.
E. Port will initiate FC-SP authentication after ESC.

Answer: E
QUESTION 239
Before you can successfully enable the Call Home feature, which of the following must be true?
A. callhome transport email smtp-server defined
B. Enterprise license installed
C. snmp-server location defined
D. snmp-server contact name defined
E. callhome site-id defined

Answer: D
QUESTION 240
Which statements are true about TCP/IP flow control mechanism?
A.The TCP Maximum Window Size (MWS) is the maximum amount of frames the sender will allow to be outstanding without acknowledgment at one time.
B.TCP uses a sliding window to control the flow of data end-to-end.
C.The maximum allowed window size is 1024 frames.
D.The maximum allowed window size is 1GB.
E.The TCP Maximum Window Size (MWS) is the maximum amount of bytes the sender will allow to be outstanding without acknowledgment at one time.
Answer: BDE
QUESTION 241
What configuration command enables all discovered storage to be available for iSCSI?
A. iscsi target enable fc
B. iscsi import target fc
C. fc-target import iscsi
D. enable fc targets dynamic
E. iscsi virtual-target all


Answer: B
QUESTION 242
The trunking encapsulation used on Gigabit Ethernet sub interfaces on the Cisco MDS switches adhere to what standard?
A. IEEE 802.11
B. RFC 3720
C. RFC 2625
D. IEEE 802.1q
E. IEEE 802.3ae

Answer: D
QUESTION 243
role name guest description Guest User Role rule 1 deny config rule 2 deny exec rule 3 permit config feature zone
rule 4 permit config feature zoneset rule 5 permit show rule 6 permit exec feature fcping rule 7 permit exec feature fctrace rule 8 permit exec feature ips rule 9 permit exec feature discover rule 10 permit config feature ivr rule 11 permit config feature ficon rule 12 permit config feature fcip rule 13 permit config feature in-order-guarantee rule 14 permit config feature interface rule 15 permit exec feature ping rule 16 permit config feature vsan vsan policy deny permit vsan 10-19
What CLI command function will be permitted by the role name "guest"?
A. change interface mode from auto to F

B. copy running-config to startup-config
C. creation of vsan 12
D. enable TACACS+
E. creation of port-channels

Answer: A
QUESTION 244
You are asked to design a full-mesh core solution using the following equipment:
3 x 9509, fully loaded with 32 port FC modules (DS-X9032) 3 x 9506, fully loaded with 32 port FC modules (DS-X9032)
The solution requires 4 Gb/s of bandwidth for the ISLs between switches. What is the number of available physical ports for fibre channel host and storage connectivity within the physical fabric?
A. 1104
B. 1200
C. 708
D. 996
E. 816

Answer: E
QUESTION 245
What is true about MDS FCIP Profiles?
A. FCIP profile contains the assigned IP address to which it is bound.
B. FCIP Profile is assigned to a GiGE interface.
C. The Profile IDs must match the FCIP interface ID.
D. FCIP profile is not required if only one FCIP interface is used.
E. Only one FCIP Interface per profile.
Answer: A
QUESTION 246
What is the effect of a packet/frame loss on SAN Extension transport such as FCIP, DWDM and CWDM?
A.A packet loss on a FCIP, DWDM and CWDM link does cause the application to abort and restart the SCSI sequence.

B.A frame drop on SAN Extension connections will always affect the application (that will abort and restart the SCSI sequence).
C.A frame loss on SAN Extension connections will never directly affect the application because it is handled
directly by the switches terminating the FCIP, DWDM or CWDM links. D.Only for CWDM a frame loss will cause the application to abort and restart the SCSI sequence.
E.A packet loss on a FCIP link does not cause the application to abort and restart the SCSI sequence, while a frame loss on DWDM and CWDM does.

Answer: E
QUESTION 247
You currently have 1 host and 2 target devices grouped into the same zone. The zone is part of the active zoneset. When one of the target ports was removed from the switch, the host receives an RSCN from the switch while the remaining target port does not. What task did the host perform that the target port did not?
A. The Host sent a RSCN to the Fabric Controller.
B. The Hosts sent a RSCN to the Name Server.
C. The Host sent a SCR to the Name Server.
D. The Host sent a SCR to the Fabric Controller.
E. The Host did not have to do anything to receive RSCN.

Answer: D
QUESTION 248
Click the Exhibit button. Each GigE interface on the MDS 9509-1 is peering with a corresponding GigE interface on the MDS 9509-2 via a point-to-point circuit on the optical ring. A FCIP tunnel is configured and bound to each GE interface. Furthermore, the two FCIP tunnels are configured in a portchannel. The circuits in the optical ring are configured so that the traffic over the FCIP tunnel 1 and 2 flows in opposite directions and no optical protection is configured. In the event of failure of Span A in the ring, what would occur?


A.The optical ring would heal within 50ms and traffic would continue flowing as before the Span A failure. B.All traffic flows over FCIP tunnel 1 would be lost. C.After FSPF re-convergence, all traffic would flow over FCIP tunnel 2. D.FCIP tunnel 1 would be temporarily down while the SONET ring healed; then traffic would continue to flow
over FCIP Tunnel 1. E.No FSPF re-convergence occurs; all traffic would flow over FCIP tunnel 2.

Answer: E
QUESTION 249
What is the function of the Link Reset Protocol within the Link Control Facility?
A. It follows a link timeout or connection error and controls LR and LRR substates.
B. It is used to arbitrate on a loop to recover from loss of sync
C. It is part of the LIP process.
D. It is used only for Class 1 connection removal.
E. It follows a Link Failure and controls NOS and LOS substates.
Answer: A
QUESTION 250
Which are requirements to configure FCIP on a MDS FC Switch?
A. FCIP feature enabled
B. Proper bandwidth settings on the FCIP profile
C. Fabric Manager and use of FCIP Tunnel Wizard
D. Active entitlement for SAN ExtentionOver IP

E. Working WAN connection between both endpoints

Answer: AD
QUESTION 251
Which prerequisites must be configured before enabling FICON?
A. Fabric Binding In Order Delivery Static Domain ID
B. Persistent FCID Static Domain ID
C. Fabric Binding Static Domain ID
D. Static Domain IDIn Order Delivery
E. Fabric Binding Persistent FCID Static Domain ID

Answer: A
QUESTION 252
Which are required to be unique on a given MDS switch across multiple VSANs?
A. Active Zoneset name
B. Port Membership
C. Domain ID
D. VSAN name
E. Allocated FCIDs
Answer: BD
QUESTION 253
What is the function of the Link Reset Protocol within the Link Control Facility?
A. It is part of the LIP process.
B. It follows a link timeout or connection error and controls LR and LRR substates.
C. It follows a Link Failure and controls NOS and LOS substates.
D. It is used only for Class 1 connection removal.
E. It is used to arbitrate on a loop to recover from loss of sync
Answer: B
QUESTION 254

In a scenario with three ISLs between two switches, a single host in VSAN 5 on switch A, and a single storage device on switch B in the same VSAN. What would be the effect on the ISLs if Flow based load balancing option was enabled in VSAN 5?
A. Flow based load balancing is not enabled for an individual VSAN.
B. All frames between source and destination would follow same link for given flow.
C. Each subsequent frame will use a different link.
D. Each subsequent frame will use the least utilized link, based on FCC.

Answer: B
QUESTION 255
A switch boot failure can be caused by a corrupted image or corrupted bootflash file system. In the event of a corrupted bootflash filesystem which steps could be used to access BIOS so the system could be booted via TFTP?
A. Interrupt the boot sequence by pressing "ctrl C" to enter BIOS setup
B. Interrupt the boot sequence bypressing "ctrl ]" or ESC to enter BIOS setup.
C. Interrupt the boot sequence by pressing "ctrl X" to enter BIOS setup
D. Supervisor cannot recover from corrupted bootflash. The card must be replaced.
E. Interrupt the boot sequence by pressing "ctrl C" to accessswitch(boot)# prompt

Answer: A
QUESTION 256
Which are requirements to configure FCIP on a MDS FC Switch?
A. Fabric Manager and use of FCIP Tunnel Wizard
B. Proper bandwidth settings on the FCIP profile
C. FCIP feature enabled
D. Working WAN connection between both endpoints
E. Active entitlement for SAN ExtentionOver IP
Answer: CE
QUESTION 257
Which are characteristics of a Fibre Channel Class 2 connection?
A.It provides confirmation of delivery, notification of non-delivery and also uses E to E flow control.

B.It provides no confirmation of delivery but uses both B to B & E to E credits. C.It provides a confirmation of delivery and uses B to B flow control. D.Same as Class 3 but also adds notification of non-delivered frames. E.It provides confirmation of delivery with guaranteed bandwidth but no notification of delivery.

Answer: AC
QUESTION 258
The purpose of the IBM Control Unit Port (CUP) protocol is to:
A. Provide in-band management of the switch by the mainframe
B. Provide redundancy between multiple mainframe sysplexes
C. Define storage peripheral devices to an IBM mainframe
D. Allow switches from different vendors to connect and interoperate
E. Define the method by which an IBM mainframe communicates to storage

Answer: A
QUESTION 259
Which are required to be unique on a given MDS switch across multiple VSANs?
A. Active Zoneset name
B. Port Membership
C. Domain ID
D. VSAN name
E. Allocated FCIDs

Answer: BD
QUESTION 260
You have a host that you connect to a switch port on a MDS switch. The switch port does not come up and a "show interface" indicates that the port is initializing and eventually goes offline. You configure the port as a TL port and the port comes up. What type of device is the host?
A.Non Fibre Channel device B.Public loop device C.Private loop device D.The host has a DB-9 copper connector E.The port should not come up after being configured as TL port because TL ports are used to connect to other

switches.

Answer: C
QUESTION 261
Which apply to the Error Detection Timeout value (E_D_TOV)?
A.During the Fabric Login, E_D_TOV is negotiated between the N_Port and the Fabric as one of the Common Service Parameters exchanged.
B.An action should be taken in less than the E_D_TOV period after the transmission of consecutive Data frames within a single sequence.
C.It is a timer, by default 100ms, used by the receiver logic to detect Loss-of-Synchronization.
D.It is a timer, by default 2 seconds, used for detecting a protocol error condition.
E.It is a timer used as the timeout value for determining when to reinstate a Recovery Qualifier.

Answer: ABD
QUESTION 262
A reason for persistent binding to be enabled on an HBA is to provide what benefit?
A. To assign the same SCSI target ID to a storage device's PWWN
B. To prevent other hosts from accessing a specific target
C. To allocate the same FCID to a fibre channel device
D. To allocate the same domain ID to a switch in a VSAN
E. To configure a user specified PWWN to the HBA
Answer: A
QUESTION 263
FC timers E_D_TOV, R_A_TOV and D_S_TOV:
A. Can be set only on IVR enabled switches
B. Can be changed only for the entire switch and not VSANs
C. Only R_A_TOV timer can be set for individual VSANS
D. Cannot be changed
E. Can be set to be different for each VSAN
Answer: E QUESTION 264

What is the general timer for missing events within a sequence?
A. Receiver-Transmitter Time-out
B. Connection Request Time-out
C. Resource Allocation Time-out
D. Missing Events Time-out
E. Error Detect Time-out

Answer: E
QUESTION 265
Which statements are true?
A. Name Server Logins are sent to destination FCID 0xFFFFFD.
B. Fabric Logins are sent to destination FCID 0xFFFFFA.
C. FSPF HLO packets are sent from source FCID 0xFFFFFD.
D. FCID 0xFFFFFA is reserved for the Management Server.
E. Fabric Logins are sent to destination FCID 0xFFFFFC.

Answer: CD
QUESTION 266
What LUN is used when a host issues a SCSI CDB Report LUNs query to a target?
A. Single query for each LUN that is allowed to be accessed by host
B. One query with LUN 1 only
C. No LUN number field in "Report LUNs" query
D. One query with LUN 0 only
E. One query with all LUNs which are allowed to be accessed by host

Answer: D
QUESTION 267
You have a Host that needs to find all target devices that supports SCSI in the fabric. What is the D_ID of the frame to query for this information?
A. 0xFFFFFF

B. 0xFFFFFC
C. 0xFFFFFE
D. 0xFFFFFD
E. 0xFFFFFA

Answer: B
QUESTION 268
How many FCIP connections can be supported on an IPS-8 blade with 2 ports for use in iSCSI?
A. 22 FCIP connections
B. 18 FCIP connections
C. 24 FCIP connections
D. 8 FCIP connections
E. 6 FCIP connections

Answer: C
QUESTION 269
What type of ordered set is sent to indicate a condition or state exists in Fibre Channel protocol?
A. Arbitrate Signals
B. Primitive Signals
C. K28.5
D. Fill words
E. Primitive Sequence
Answer: E
QUESTION 270
What LUN is used when a host issues a SCSI CDB Report LUNs query to a target?
A. One query with LUN 1 only
B. No LUN number field in "Report LUNs" query
C. Single query for each LUN that is allowed to be accessed by host
D. One query with all LUNs which are allowed to be accessed by host
E. One query with LUN 0 only
Answer: E QUESTION 271

What is NOT a function of LIP?
A. Indicate loop receiver failure
B. Acquire an AL_PA
C. Reinitialize a loop
D. Passive attachment to loop
E. Indicate what port to reset on loop

Answer: D
QUESTION 272
Which statements are true about TCP/IP flow control mechanism?
A.The maximum allowed window size is 1024 frames. B.The TCP Maximum Window Size (MWS) is the maximum amount of bytes the sender will allow to be
outstanding without acknowledgment at one time.
C.The maximum allowed window size is 1GB.
D.The TCP Maximum Window Size (MWS) is the maximum amount of frames the sender will allow to be outstanding without acknowledgment at one time.
E.TCP uses a sliding window to control the flow of data end-to-end.

Answer: BCE
QUESTION 273
You have a host that you connect to a switch port on a MDS switch. The switch port does not come up and a "show interface" indicates that the port is initializing and eventually goes offline. You configure the port as a TL port and the port comes up. What type of device is the host?
A.The host has a DB-9 copper connector
B.Private loop device
C.The port should not come up after being configured as TL port because TL ports are used to connect to other switches.
D.Public loop device
E.Non Fibre Channel device
Answer: B QUESTION 274

A target device was just taken off line for maintenance. What ELS would be generated for applicable devices in the same zone to notify that the target port has gone down?
A. PRLI
B. FLOGI
C. RSCN
D. LS_RJT
E. RNID

Answer: C
QUESTION 275
Given a new switch and just powering up the system. What is the default SNMP userid and password?
A. admin/admin123
B. cisco/cisco
C. admin/admin
D. None of the above

Answer: D
QUESTION 276
What statement is true?
A.R_RDY is used for buffer-to-buffer flow control and ACK_0 and ACK_N frames are used to perform end-to-end flow control.
B.VC_RDY is used for buffer-to-buffer flow control and ACK_0 frames are used to perform end-to-end flow control.
C.R_RDY is used for buffer-to-buffer flow control and ACK_0 frames are used to perform end-to-end flow control.
D.R_RDY is used for buffer-to-buffer flow control and ACK_1 frames are used to perform end-to-end flow control.
E.Class F only uses buffer-to-buffer flow control.
Answer: D
QUESTION 277

What is TCP fast recovery?
A.It is an algorithm that after a new connection is established with a host on another network, initializes the congestion window to one segment and each timean ACK is received, increases the congestion window by one segment
B.It is an algorithm that uses fast retransmit when a missing segment is detected.
C.It is an algorithm that initiates slow start instead of congestion avoidance after fast retransmit sends what appears to be the missing segment.
D.It is an algorithm that starts congestion avoidance instead of slow start after fast retransmit sends what appears to be the missing segment.

Answer: D
QUESTION 278
Which are true about the advertisement methods for iSCSI targets implemented by the MDS 9000?
A.By default, iSCSI targets are advertised only on Gigabit Ethernet interfaces but not on subinterfaces.
B.By default, iSCSI targets are not advertised and the administrator can choose whether to advertise them or not by changing the switch configuration.
C.By default, iSCSI targets are advertised on Gigabit Ethernet subinterfaces only but not on the main Gigabit Ethernet interfaces.
D.iSCSI targets can be limited by the administrator by configuring the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces over which static iSCSI targets are advertised.
E.By default, iSCSI targets are advertised on all Gigabit Ethernet interfaces and subinterfaces.
Answer: DE
QUESTION 279
What LUN is used when a host issues a SCSI CDB Report LUNs query to a target?
A. One query with LUN 0 only
B. One query with LUN 1 only
C. One query with all LUNs which are allowed to be accessed by host
D. No LUN number field in "Report LUNs" query
E. Single query for each LUN that is allowed to be accessed by host
Answer: A
QUESTION 280

In the Cisco MDS, CHAP authentication is used on which iSCSI sessions?
A. Discovery session only, per the iSCSI RFC
B. Monitoring session only, Per the iSCSI RFC
C. Target sessions only, per the iSCSI RFC
D. Discovery and each Target session
E. Neither, iSCSI uses PAP not CHAP for authentication

Answer: D
QUESTION 281
You are looking at a trace for FLOGI frame. What would the value of the R_CTL Field be in the Frame header knowing that a FLOGI frame is an Extended Link service request.
A. 0x23
B. 0x12
C. 0x22
D. 0x03
E. 0x02

Answer: C
QUESTION 282
You are asked to design a full-mesh core solution using the following equipment: 3 x 9509, fully loaded with 32 port FC modules (DS-X9032) 3 x 9506, fully loaded with 32 port FC modules (DS-X9032) The solution requires 4 Gb/s of bandwidth for the ISLs between switches. What is the number of available physical ports for fibre channel host and storage connectivity within the physical fabric?
A. 816
B. 708
C. 996
D. 1200
E. 1104

Answer: A
QUESTION 283
While in configuration mode, what command will allow a user to view interface 4 on module 2 without leaving the current mode?

A."exit", then "port show 4 module 2" B."show mod 2 int 4" C."do show interface <type>2/4" D.None of the above -It is not possible to show the interface without ending configuration mode. E."session show interface <type>2/4"

Answer: C
QUESTION 284
What is an invalid match criteria when creating a QoS class map?
A. output-interface
B. source-address
C. destination-wwn
D. input-interface
E. source-wwn

Answer: A
QUESTION 285
What control traffic is NOT prohibited from crossing Inter-VSAN boundaries?
A. Build Fabric (BF) and Reconfigure Fabric (RCF) frames
B. ELS frames involved in Principal Switch Selection
C. Full zoneset distribution traffic
D. RSCN and SW-RSCN for devices within the affected IVR zone(s)/active zoneset
E. Fabric Configuration Service (FCS) traffic
Answer: D
QUESTION 286
The purpose of the SW_ILS ELP frame is to:
A. Exchange FSPF routing information
B. Notify other switches that a principal switch has been elected
C. Begin principal switch selection
D. None of the above
E. Notify other switches they can now request domain IDs


Answer: D
QUESTION 287
What Fibre Channel header field indicates the frame is a Link Control frame?
A. TYPE
B. F_CTL
C. R_CTL
D. DF_CTL
E. CS_CTL

Answer: C
QUESTION 288
9509 has one IPS-8 line card installed in slot 1, and a 16-port line card installed in slot 3. What is the FICON port number of interface fc 3/3?
A. 0x22
B. 0x43
C. None of the above
D. 0x23
E. 0x42

Answer: E
QUESTION 289
An IT department is planning to implement an FC fabric between an MDS 9120 and a MDS 9506 with 2 Supervisors and a 32-Port switching module, utilizing 2 EISLs in a port channel. The best port configuration allowing for maximum host connectivity is:
A. 9120, ports fc1/2, fc1/4 to 9506, ports fc1/1, 1/2
B. 9120, ports fc1/2, fc1/4 to 9506, ports fc1/2, 1/4
C. 9120, ports fc1/1, fc1/8 to 9506, ports fc1/1, 1/5
D. 9120, ports fc1/1, fc1/2 to 9506, ports fc1/1, 1/2
E. 9120, ports fc1/2, fc1/4 to 9506, ports fc1/1, 1/5
Answer: E QUESTION 290

From the configuration below, what VSAN(s) would iSCSI host 10.1.1.8 appear?
iscsi interface vsan-membership vsan database vsan 200 interface iscsi3/1 iscsi initiator ip-address 10.1.1.8 vsan 100 vsan 101 interface iscsi3/1 switchport proxy-initiator nWWN 11:11:11:11:11:11:11:00 pWWN 11:11:11:11:11:11:11:11 no shutdown
A. VSAN 100, 101
B. VSAN 200
C. VSAN 200, 100
D. VSAN 100, 101, 200
E. VSAN 1

Answer: A
QUESTION 291
The running configuration can be copied to any filename, without specifying the destination file as "startup-config". What statement is true with the command "copy running-config myconfig.txt"?
A. file "myconfig.txt" will be saved in nvram as myconfig.txt
B. file "myconfig.txt" will overwrite the "startup-config"
C. file "myconfig.txt" will be save in /volatile:myconfig.txt
D. file "myconfig.txt" will be saved in /mnt/cfg/1/ascii/myconfig.txt
E. file "myconfig.txt" will be saved on bootflash:myconfig.txt

Answer: C
QUESTION 292
Assume you have a class 3 connection. A switch port interface has 12 buffer credits. If a host with 24 buffer credits logs into this port, how many buffer credits will be made available to this host to transmit to other Fibre channel devices logged into the same Fibre channel switch?
A. Not known -The host must first PLOGI to other Fibre Channel devices.

B. 24 credits will be set.
C. 12 credits will be set.
D. This is negotiated at FLOGI and depends on how many other devices this host is connecting to.
E. 3 credits will be set.

Answer: C
QUESTION 293
What is the User-specified VSAN IDs range?
A. 2-4094
B. 1-4093
C. 2-4092
D. 2-4093

Answer: D
QUESTION 294
You are connecting 2 existing Fabrics. Fabric 1 has Domains 97,100. Fabric 2 has Domains 100 and 101. When an ISL is connected between the 2 Fabrics, the new Domain IDs for the newly merged Fabric are 97, 100, 101, 102. What SW_ILS command is generated to allow for the switches to accept a new domain ID?
A. RCF
B. EFP
C. ESC
D. ELP
E. BF
Answer: A
QUESTION 295
In iSCSI proxy mode, host iSCSI initiators can be differentiated by:
A. IP address of the iSCSI initiator
B. Static PWWN assigned by administrator
C. IQN name of the iSCSI initiator
D. Static PWWN assigned by MDS
E. 164 address of the iSCSI initiator


Answer: AC
QUESTION 296
By configuring Role Based Access Control (RBAC), which tasks are a MDS network-administrator able to perform?
A. Restrict a user's management capabilities to a specific VSAN
B. Apply access control to FCIP peer and iSCSI clients
C. Customize the privileges of the login user
D. Limit LUN access to specific WWN's
E. Limit a user's access to the MDS from a specific IP subnet

Answer: AC
QUESTION 297
You have a legacy JBOD that uses copper DB-9 connecters. You want to connect your JBOD to a Fiber only Fibre Channel switch. You want to convert the DB-9 connection to multi mode Fiber Optics. What device would you use?
A. GBIC
B. SFP
C. MIA
D. DUAL SC
E. HSSC
Answer: C
QUESTION 298
What zoning option is valid in interop mode 2 and 3 with a mixed vendor fabric?
A. nWWN
B. sWWN
C. domain / port
D. fcid
E. lun zoning
Answer: C QUESTION 299

A vty terminal type can be changed to vt100 by what method or command?
A. From EXEC level enter "terminal terminal-type vt100
B. From EXEC level enter "line mode terminal-type vt100"
C. From configuration mode enter "terminal vty 0-4 type vt100"
D. From configuration mode enter "line 0-4 type vt100"
E. None -the vty terminal type cannot be changed.

Answer: A
QUESTION 300
Which of these TCP ports does iSNS use?
A. 3205
B. 3225
C. 3226
D. 3325

Answer: A
QUESTION 301
Is the iSNS client supported on VRRP interfaces?
A. yes
B. no
C. only when the storage_services_enabler_pkg license is enabled on the switch
D. only on Cisco IPS line cards
Answer: B
QUESTION 302
Can Cisco Fabric Services be used to distribute iSCSI initiator configurations?
A. yes
B. no
C. only when the SAN_EXTN_OVER_IP_18_4 license is installed on the switch
D. only when ENTERPRISE_PKG is installed on the switch


Answer: A
QUESTION 303
Which three of these Fibre Channel words are known as primitive signals? (Choose three.)
A. NOS
B. R_RDY
C. CLS
D. LIP
E. IDLE

Answer: BCE
QUESTION 304
What set of primitive signals is valid for arbitrated loop?
A. NOS, LOS, LR, LRR
B. SOF, EOF, ABTS, ACK
C. LIFA, LIPA, LIHA, LISA
D. LIP, LR, LRR, SOF
E. CLS, OPN, ARB

Answer: E
QUESTION 305
If a Fibre Channel interface is receiving an NOS pattern on its interface, what pattern will the interface be transmitting?
A. OLS
B. LR
C. LRR
D. IDLE
E. NOS
Answer: A
QUESTION 306
Refer to the exhibit. The fabric containing Switch A is merging with the fabric containing Switch B.

Which switch will become the principal switch, and why?

A. Switch A, because its principal switch priority value is lower
B. Switch B, because its principal switch priority value is higher
C. Switch A, because its principal switch WWN is lower
D. Switch B, because its principal switch WWN is higher
E. not enough information has been given

Answer: A
QUESTION 307
The Class 2 class of service always uses end-to-end acknowledgments (ACK, BSY or RJT) for every data frame. What else is true of Class 2?
A.It is an "unreliable" datagram service that does not guarantee fixed latency or in-order delivery. B.It is a "reliable" datagram service that guarantees fixed latency and in-order delivery. C.It is a "reliable" datagram service that does not guarantee fixed latency but guarantees in-order delivery. D.It is a "reliable" datagram service that does not guarantee fixed latency or in-order delivery.
Answer: D
QUESTION 308
What makes the R_CTL field valuable to Extended Link Services?
A.It uses hex'03' for all request frames and hex'02' for all reply frames. B.It uses hex'02' for all request frames and hex'03' for all reply frames.

C.It uses hex'00' for all request frames and hex'01' for all reply frames.
D.It uses hex'02' for all request and reply frames (the ILS request and reply frames are not differentiated by the R_CTL field).
E.It does not have a fixed value and the value depends on the specific Internal Link Service.

Answer: B
QUESTION 309
Which two of these are effects of a BF SW_ILS? (Choose two.)
A.It causes a disruptive reconfiguration of the fabric.
B.It causes a non-disruptive reconfiguration of the fabric.
C.It causes a new principal switch selection to happen.
D.It causes all the assigned addresses in the fabric to be changed, while avoiding traffic loss by holding data traffic.
E.It helps to resolve overlapping domain identifiers.

Answer: BC
QUESTION 310
Which methods can be used to control Iscsi INITIATOR ACCESS TO VIRTUAL TARGETS? Select three.
A. Zoning
B. Specifying on which Gigabitethernet port the virtual target is advertised.
C. Setting up Iscsi PROXY MODE FOR THE INITIATORS
D. Specifying which IP subnet virtual target can be accessed
E. Enabling role-based access control.
Answer: ABC
QUESTION 311
What TCP feature reduces the chances of an oversized IP packets from being fragmented?
A. SACK
B. Extended ping
C. PMTU
D. Retransmit timeout
E. Send buffer size


Answer: C
QUESTION 312
When using Fcanalyzer to capture a flow from FCID 010300 what would be the proper command?
A. Can not filter at FCID level on Fcanalyzer
B. MDS#fcanalyze local display-filter (mdshdr.vsan==1)&&((fc.d_id==01300)or(fc.s_id==01300))
C. MDS(config)#fcanalyze locaal display-filter (mdshdr.vsan==1)&&((fc.d_id==01300)or(fc.s_id==01300))
D. MDS(config)#fcanalyze display-filter (mdshdr.vsan==1)&&((fc.d_id==01300)or(fc.s_id==01300))
E. MDS(config)#fcanalyze display-filter (mdshdr.vsan==0x01)&&((fc.d_id==01300)or(fc.s_id==01300))

Answer: C
QUESTION 313
What statement is NOT correct depending on the below output:
MDS_switch#show iscsi virtual-target configured Target Seagate-jbod-lun *Port WWN 21:00.00.04:cf:db:3e:a7 Configured node No of LU mapping:1 ISCSI LUN :0x0000,FC LUN:0X0000 No of advertised interface: 1 GigabitEthernet 2/5 No of initiators permitted: 1
Initiator 10.48.69.241/32 is permitted All initiator permit is disabled
A. Interface iscsi 2/5 is in "no shut" status.
B. Both the discovery and the target sessions exist for this iscsi connection.
C. Iscsi target has been statically configured
D. Only one initiator can connect to this target.
E. Virtual target name is configured as "Seagate-jbod-lun: in the switch configuration.
Answer: B QUESTION 314

How can ISCSI protocol health and status can be best determined?
A. Span the ISCSI interface and use PAA to view ISCSI PDU.
B. Use the Monitor function of the Device manager.
C. Attach to IPS module and do
D. From CLI enable prompt do
E. From CLI enable prompt do

Answer: E
QUESTION 315
What command can be used to find the first available FICON port number to bind to a newly created port-channel on an MDS 9120 switch?
A.Show port-channel database
B.Show ficon next-available port-number
C.Show ficon first-available port-number
D.It is not possible to configure FICON on the MDS 9120 switch.
E.Port-channel carrying FICON VSANs are not bound to a FICON port number the physical links making up the port-channel already have FICON port numbers.

Answer: C
QUESTION 316
What step must be performed before you can enable the FICON feature on a MDS switch?
A. You must physically bind all FICON interfaces to FICON port numbers.
B. You must create separate VSANs for FCP and FICON traffic.
C. You must enable in Order Delivery for the FICON VSAN.
D. You must set the default zone to deny for the FICON VSAN.
E. None of the above.
Answer: C
QUESTION 317
Switch-to-Switch and Switch-to-Host security are implemented in an enterprise SAN for what reasons?

A. Enables Fabric logins to communicate with an AAA server.
B. Prevent un-authorized Fabric or Node from being connected and isolates the link.
C. Shuts all unused interfaces and requires privileged password to perform "no shut"
D. Enables logging of all HBA based transactions in the Fabric.
E. Enable un-affected VSANs to continue carrying traffic in an isolated ISL.

Answer: B
QUESTION 318
You have a MDS9509 switch with a 16 port FC module in slot 1, an 8 port IPS module in slot 2, and a 32 port FC module in slot 3. What is the FICON port number of interface FC 3/1?
A. 11
B. 10
C. 41
D. 40
E. 20

Answer: D
QUESTION 319
The acronym CUP refers to:
A.Control Unit Port -the physical port to the switch that the storage is attached. B.Channel Unit Port -the physical port in the switch that connects to the mainframe. C.Channel Unit Port -a logical port in the switch used to enable management from the mainframe D.Control Unit Port -a logical port in which the switch is used to enable management from the mainframe. E.Control Unit Port -the port used to access the storage when multiple paths exist.
Answer: D
QUESTION 320
An attaching host acquires a Fiber Channel ID in the accept from what process?
A. FLOGI
B. PLOGI
C. LOGIN
D. PRLI
E. BA_ACC


Answer: A
QUESTION 321
During FICON CHANNEL PORT INITIALIZATION IN A CASCADED ficon ENVIRONMENT, IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE FICON channel completes its PLOGI to the Fabric Controller, it then:
A. Begins performing PLOGIs with each Control Unit for each link address defined on this channel path.
B. Requests SCR with the switch
C. Requests RNID with the switch
D. Performs a PLOGI to the Management Server
E. Issues a QSA ELS command

Answer: E
QUESTION 322
How is a debug and run sent to a file on an MDS?
A. debug (what your debugging) > logfile debugout
B. set log debug (then run debug)
C. debug logfile debugout (then run debug)
D. debug can only go the screen or FTP server
E. By default they go to a logfile
Answer: A
QUESTION 323
IVR Enabled MDS Switch uses which of following to identify IVR zone members?
A. pwwn only
B. fcid only
C. pwwn and domain id
D. pwwn and vsan id
E. pwwn and fcid
Answer: D
QUESTION 324

What step must be done in order to use the FCIP feature on a FICON enabled VSAN?
A. Set the MTU of the GIGEinterface to a value greater than 1500.
B. Bind a FICON port number to the FCIP interface
C. FCIP and FICON are mutually exclusive features
D. Make sure in Order Delivery is enabled under the FCIP profile
E. None of the above

Answer: B
QUESTION 325
Which methods can be used to control access of Fiber Channel attached targets to iscsi Hosts on a MDS switch? Select three.
A. Zoning
B. VSANs
C. IP MASK
D. User Roles
E. Isns

Answer: A
QUESTION 326
The MDS FICON portaddress "block" subcommand:
A. Causes the port to enter the shutdown state
B. Causes the port to stop transmitting the OLS primitive sequence
C. Can be applied to the CUP port
D. Blocks data but not control traffic on the port
E. Can be applied to a range of ports
Answer: E
QUESTION 327
Which areas are required to be configured when bringing up a FCIP tunnel? Select three.
A. Interface Gigabitethernet
B. Interface FCIP
C. Fabric binding

D. Interface iscsi
E. FCIP Profile
F. Authentication (AAA or TACACS

Answer: ABE
QUESTION 328
Select the description of how the trespass feature works:
A.Trespass permits multiple hosts to access the same lun. B.Trespass is used to bypass traditional lun masking, and permit access to masked luns within the storage array. C.Trespass is used to trigger an array to make a lun available out a secondary port in the event there is a
failure on the primary port. D.Trespass is used to permit the iscsi virtual target to reside in multiple zones at the same time. E.Trespass is used to suppress available luns from being seen by initiators that do not need to see them.

Answer: C
QUESTION 329
Based on the following output from show hardware internal fc-mac port gbic-info module command what is the possible cause of an interface not coming up?
Module-3# -----------GBIC info for user port 03--------Present No Module-3# sh hardware internal fc-mac port 6 gbic-info -------GBIC info for user port 06--------------Present:Yes Tx fault:No Rx Loss: Yes Tx Enable: Yes Read State :read cc_base:passed cc_ex: passed
A. The end device is a private device but the port is not configured as a TL port.
B. There is a physical layer issue
C. The port is connected to another switch but the port is not configured for an E_port.
D. There should not be an issue. Yjis is the output of an operational link.
E. There is a speed mismatch on the link.
Answer: B QUESTION 330

The function of the SFP consists in which FC protocol layer/layers?
A. FC-1
B. Encode/Decode Layer
C. FC-0
D. Framing and Control Layer
E. FC-4

Answer: C
QUESTION 331
Persistent binding is:
A. binding an IPaddress to a NIC card and target ID number
B. Binding WWN of an initiator to a target port and target ID
C. Binding PWWN of an initiator to a target port Pwwn ANDA TARGET id NUMBER
D. Binding target WWPNpWWN to an initiator instance and target ID number
E. Binding target Nwwn TO AN INITIATOR INSTANCE AND TARGET id NUMBER

Answer: B
QUESTION 332
What load balancing option should best utilize all available ISLs on port Channel?
A. Flow Based
B. Source FCID based
C. Frame based
D. Source/Destination FCID Exchange based
E. Source and Destination FCID based
Answer: D
QUESTION 333
What technique is used in Fibre Channel to provide reliable clocking?
A. B8ZS
B. Running Disparity
C. Encoding D. Ordered Sets

E. Frame Delimiters

Answer: B
QUESTION 334
What statement is true about the zone configuration, below? zone name test vsan 1 member pwwn11:11:11:11:11:11:11:11 lun 0002 member symbolic_nodename iqnnameofiscsihost member ip_address 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0
A. Invalid configuration due to unavailable zone options
B. Invalid configuration due to mismatched zone options
C. SAN extension license required after grace period
D. Enterprise license required after grace period
E. iSCSI license required after grace period

Answer: D
QUESTION 335
What is a valid SCSI opcode for a "Write" operation on direct access devices?
A. 0x08
B. 0x0A
C. 0x25
D. 0x00
E. 0x12
Answer: B
QUESTION 336
One of the primary differences between backings up to tape vs. disk is that tape is what type of access device?
A. Differential
B. Cumulative
C. Random
D. Sequential
E. Incremental


Answer: D
QUESTION 337
What is the best option if a customer wants load balancing of data traffic between two MDS switches across two FCIP links?
A.Configure each FCIP profile using separate TCP ports B.Configure each FCIP interface for B-port C.Combine two Gigabit Ethernet interfaces into a single Ether-channel with one FCIP interface D.Combine two FCIP interfaces into a single FC Port-channel; one FCIP interface per Gigabit Ethernet E.Configure SJO and OJO load balancing across FCIP interface

Answer: D
QUESTION 338
A storage administrator wishes to make a "ficon_new" of the current IPL file "ficon current" in use on a FICON-enabled VSAN 20. What command must the administrator use?
A. Copy ficon file ficon_current ficon_new
B. Ficon copy ipl ficon_current ficon_new vsan20
C. Copy ficon file ficon_current ficon_new vsan20
D. Ficon vsan20 copyfile ficon_current ficon_new
E. copy running-configuration:ficon_current bootflash:ficon_ne w
Answer: D
QUESTION 339
What statement describing Port Channel functionality is FALSE?
A.It provides a point-to-point connection over an ISL (E ports) or EISL (TE ports) B.It increases the aggregate bandwidth on an ISL by distributing traffic among all functional links in the
channel. C.It load balances across multiple links and maintains optimum bandwidth utilization D.It provides high availability for an ISL If one link fails, traffic previously carried on this link is switched to the
remaining links E.Port Channels can only be configured on the 16 port Fibre Channel module
Answer: E QUESTION 340

Which commands prevent a host from setting the clock in the FICON VSAN?
A. no host control set-timestamp
B. no host set-timestamp
C. no host port control
D. no host control clock
E. no host control set-clock

Answer: BC
QUESTION 341
Exhibit:

Each Gigabit Ethernet interface on the MOS 9509-1 is peering with the corresponding Gigabit Ethernet interface on MOS 9509-2 via a point-to-point circuit on the SONET ring. Furthermore, the GE interfaces on each MOS are configured as a port-channel. An FCIP tunnel is configured to carry SAN traffic across this network. If the point-to-point circuits were configured with UPSR protection on the SONET ring, a failure of anyone of the spans (span A, B, C, or D) would lead to what scenario?
A.FSPF would have to re-converge first in order for traffic continue flowing over FCIP B.The SONET ring would heal within 50rns and traffic would continue flowing. C.The traffic would switch from one of the GE interfaces to the other D.The FCIP tunnel would be temporarily down while the SONET ring healed; then traffic would continue to flow E.Interface FCIP would need to be administratively shutdown

Answer: B QUESTION 342

FICON VSAN numbers 1, 2, 3 and 4 are configured and active on an MDS 9216 switch. VSAN 3 is configured with active equals saved. Which are the effects of making a non-FICON configuration change to VSAN 3? (Choose two)
A. A copy of the updated running-configuration is sent to the CUP
B. The switch's updated running-configuration is written to the startup-configuration
C. The IPL file for VSAN 3 is updated
D. The IPL files for all FICON VSANs is updated
E. The IPL file for VSAN 3 is not updated

Answer: BE
QUESTION 343
When IVR is activated between VSAN A on Switch 1 and VSAN B on Switch 2 it allows:
A. Switches A and B to communicate with each other
B. All nodes of different zones in VSAN A of Switch 1 to communicate with each other
C. Specific members in VSAN A and VSAN B to communicate with each other
D. VSAN A and VSAN B zones to merge
E. All RSCNs other than IVR-related RSCNs the ability to pass between VSAN A and VSAN B

Answer: C
QUESTION 344
What feature can be used to eliminate a single point of failure of gigabit Ethernet interfaces?
A. SACK
B. VRRP
C. PMTU
D. VSAN
E. Sub-Interface
Answer: B
QUESTION 345
Select the correct order of logins to initiate a host to storage SCSI connection as initiated by the host Nport: A. FLOGI, PRLI, PLOGI

B. PRLI, PLOGI, FLOGI
C. FLOGI, PLOGI, PRLI
D. PRLI, PLOGI
E. PLOGI, PRLI

Answer: C
QUESTION 346
The MDS "ficon swap portnumber" command: (Choose two)
A. Supports swapping logical FICON ports
B. Supports swapping physical ports that are part of a port channel
C. Supports swapping a port with 10 BB_credits for an OSM port
D. Is VSAN-specific
E. Supports swapping non-existent/non-implemented ports

Answer: CE
QUESTION 347
What is the typical time for a SONET ring to fail over to the protect ring?
A. 10 microseconds
B. 50 microseconds
C. 10 milliseconds
D. 50 milliseconds
E. 1 second
Answer: D
QUESTION 348
Which are configurable VSAN attributes? (Choose two)
A. VSAN name
B. Operational state
C. EISL trunking
D. Host membership
E. Load-balancing scheme


Answer: AE
QUESTION 349
RAID is: (Choose two)
A. Random Array of Idle Drives
B. Redundant Array of Independent Drives
C. Redundant Array of In-expensive Drives
D. Readily Available Independent Drives

Answer: BC
QUESTION 350
Initiator 10 111 establishes an iSCSI discovery session through portal 10. 1.1.2 and only finds fibre channel targets on VSAN 1. What is the most likely cause for no targets discovered inVSAN5?
A. Dynamic import of targets only applies to VSAN 1
B. There are no targets logged into VSAN 5
C. Interface iSCSI1/8 is not a member of VSAN 5
D. Initiator 10.1.1.1 has not been configured with a port WWN
E. There is no active zoneset on VSAN 5
Answer: B
QUESTION 351
Exhibit: When an existing Domain ID of a VSAN is changed from preferred to static, to ensure FCID persistency across reboots:


A. VSAN needs to be disruptively restarted
B. Switch needs to be restarted
C. Line cards alone needs to be restarted
D. VSAN needs to be restarted non-disruptively
E. Domain ID mode cannot be changed for VSNS on MDS switch

Answer: D
QUESTION 352
If the MDS iSCSI interface is configured for proxy initiator mode, and 4 ISCSI-attached hosts attach and can see access storage via that interface, how many host port logins will the storage array receive?
A. 4, one port login for each host
B. 2, a read and a write port login
C. 1, port login from the proxy initiator
D. 0, no logins, proxy initiator does not use port logins
E. 8, one read and one write port login for each host


Answer: C
QUESTION 353
Configuring IVR on an MDS is required to allow a device to:
A. Communicate with two or more devices
B. Communicate over an FCIP tunnel which crosses a non COP enabled router
C. Exist in a transit VSAN
D. Communicate with a device on a non-MOS Switch
E. Communicate with devices in another VSAN
Answer: E
QUESTION 354
Exhibit A:

Exhibit B:


The administrator has noticed that there is no FSPF route in vsan 775 to reach domain Ox62 in vsan 777. What is the likely cause?
A. VSAN 777 is running in interop mode 2
B. VSAN 8 is also using domain id 0x62.
C. Both Host1 and tape device are logged out of the fabric.
D. The IVR VSAN topology has different VSAN configured for each MDS
E. The IVR border switch will never propagate FSPF routes between IVR VSANS.

Answer: C
QUESTION 355
Which are true statements about Cisco's MDS implementation of FICON CUP? (Choose two)
A. CUP may block/unblock ports
B. CUP may modify the VSAN a port resides in.
C. CUP must be defined as a control unit in the HCD and IOCP with a CUP port address of FC
D. CUP may prohibit/permit ports
E. CUP must be assigned a virtual FICON port number
Answer: AD
QUESTION 356
Which advanced features of the MDS FCIP configuration will engage the traffic shapping abilities for the TCP connection? (Choose two)

A. Compression
B. Write acceleration
C. QOS for data and control
D. Use of Maximum bandwidth settings
E. Send Buffer Size setting

Answer: AD
QUESTION 357
An MDS 9509 director has a 16-port Fibre Channel module in slot 1 and a 32-port Fibre Channel module in slot
2. The director is assigned Domain ID 32 in FICON VSAN 27. Assume VSAN 27 is using the default value for the "fcid-last-byte" configuration command. If port 2/1 is a member of VSAN 27, what FCID is assigned to it?
A. 0x201B00
B. Ox200201
C. Ox201100
D. Ox202000
E. Cannot be determined

Answer: D
QUESTION 358
Which features are required for an operational FICON VSAN? (Choose two)
A. Fabric-binding
B. Last byte of FCID 0x00
C. Persistent FCID
D. In-order delivery
E. Source-Destination-Exchange load balancing

Answer: AD
QUESTION 359
On the Cisco Port Analyzer Adapter (PAA), what truncation mode needs to be set if an SD port is configured for 2Gb/s and the PAA's Ethernet port is configured for 1Gb to guarantee zero frame loss by the PAA?
A. MNM

B. NTM
C. ETM
D. STM
E. DTM

Answer: E
QUESTION 360
A2-byte link address defined for a mainframe definitively indicates a:
A. Cascaded FICON environment
B. Non-cascaded FICON environment
C. QSA frame will be sent during N-port login
D. CUP device is in use
E. Control Unit Image

Answer: C
QUESTION 361
If all FC targets are required to be seen by iSCSI initiators, what is the easiest way to accomplish this?
A. When iSCSI is enabled all FC targets are imported by default
B. Enable dynamic import of FC target into iSCSI
C. Virtualization software most be enabled on hosts
D. Statically create Virtual targets on storage arrays primary path only
E. Enable storage array iSCSI target export ability

Answer: B
QUESTION 362
On a 9506, FICON has been enabled on VSAN 2 using a Domain id of 0x05. All of the fibre channel ports in the switch have been placed in this VSAN. The switch is using the default value for fcid-last-byte. The following command is issued on the switch:
ficon swap portnumber 10 11
What FCID will be used to access the storage connected to interface fc 1/11?
A. 0x050aOO

B. 0x050bOO
C. 0x051000
D. 0x051100
E. 0x0510ff
F. 0x050900

Answer: F
QUESTION 363
Which are the functions of the principal switch? (Choose two)
A. To assign Domain IDs
B. To act as the root in the determination of the Principal Path
C. To determine if a new switch can join the fabric
D. To determine all FSPF paths
E. To detect zone Merge Failures

Answer: AB
QUESTION 364
Lun masking is a means by which Luns:
A. May be concatenated on a host
B. May be concatenated on an array
C. May be bound on a host
D. Are only presented to a pre-defined initiator
E. Is presented read-only

Answer: D
QUESTION 365
What implementation would allow the switch to provide an end device with the same Fibre Channel Identifier across reboots of the MDS?
A. Static Domains
B. Permanent Identifier
C. Persistent Target Binding
D. Persistent FCIDs
E. Static FCIDs


Answer: D
QUESTION 366
Host multipathing is best implemented with redundant:
A. links in a port channel
B. fspf paths between switches
C. fabrics
D. zones
E. storage arrays

Answer: C
QUESTION 367
What is correct based upon the below display output?
MDS_switch#show ips stats tcp interface gigabitethernet 1/1 detail TCP Statistics for port GigabitEthernet1/1 ?.
TCP Active Connections Local Address Rermote Address State Send-Q Recv-Q 10.23914.2053225 10.2391418965512 ESTABLISH 0 0 10.23914.2053225 10.2391418965514 ESTABLISH 668 0 10.23914.2053225 0.0.0.0.0 LISTEN 0 0
A. Two iSCSI hosts are connected to this IPS
B. This IPS is connected to two FCIP peers
C. This IPS has only one rermote FCIP peer
D. This IPS has one iSCSI session
E. There are two IPFC sessions
Answer: C
QUESTION 368
What iSCSI virtual target name was dynamically created over interface iscsi 1/1?
A. iqn.1987-05.com.cisco:05.mds1-vsan5-01-01
B. iqn.1987-05.com.cisco:05.mds1.01-01.21 00002037a7cb29
C. iqn.mds1.01-01192.168.22.134

D. iqn.mds1.01-01.2100002037a7cb29
E. iqn.mds1-target01-iscsi1-1

Answer: B
QUESTION 369
Which scenarios require assigning FICON port numbers?
A. Aggregating ISL bandwidth
B. Utilizing multiple FSPF link costs for traffic engineering
C. Cascading FICON over a Fibre Channel infrastructure
D. Cascading FICON over an IP infrastructure
E. Performing a reverse port swap

Answer: AD
QUESTION 370
Please view the output, below:
Port-channel 2 is trunking Port desniption is To 172.22.36.8 Hardware is Fibre Channel Port WWN is 24:02:00:0c:85:e9:d2:c0 Admin Port mode is E, trunk mode is on Port mode is TE Port vsan is 1
Speed is 4 Gbps Trunk vsans (admin allowed and active) (1,2,3) Trunk vsans (up) (1,2,3) fcl/l is trunking Hardware is Fibre Channel, FCOT is short Port WWN is 20:01:00:0c:85:e9:d2:c0 Peer Port WWN is 20:09:00:05:30:00:68:5e Admin Port mode is E, trunk mode is on Trunk vsans (admin allowed and active) (4) Trunk vsans (up) (4)
Two switches are connected by a 21ink port-channel (port-channel 2) and an EISL (fc1/1) command, "channel-group 2 force", what will happen to VSAN 4?

A. VSAN 4 will get added to the trunking list for port-channel 2
B. Nothing, the port-channel compatibility check prevents unlike links from joining a port-channel
C. Nothing -a new port-channel will be created only having VSAN 4 allowed
D. Port-channel 2 will have its allowed VSAN list changed to VSAN 4 only
E. VSAN 4 will not be trunked

Answer: E
QUESTION 371
What is the correct order of events for an N-Port to establish a session with a fiber channel switch network?
A. FLOGI, RSCN, PLOGI, PRLI
B. SOF, FLOGI, PLOGI, PRLI, SCN
C. LIP, FLOGI, PLOGI, GT_NXTI
D. FLOGI, SCN, PLOGI, PRLI
E. R-RDY,FLOGI ,PLOGI, RSCN, PRLI
Answer: D
QUESTION 372
Exhibit:

A host is able to telnet to MDS2 Interface VSAN. What is the default route for MDS2?
A. MDS2 management port must be enabled for host to access B. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.1.2.1

C. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.1.2.3
D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.3
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.1.2.2

Answer: D
QUESTION 373
Which prerequisites must be met for multiple cascaded FICON fabrics to exist between 2 MDS switches?
A. In-order-delivery must be enabled on each fabric
B. EISLs must be trunking each fabric
C. Fabric binding must be enabled on each fabric
D. A CUP device must be present on each fabric
E. A port number must be assigned to at least one ISL carrying the FICON traffic

Answer: AC
QUESTION 374
Log messages are not showing up in fabric manager. What is the most likely the cause?
A. Logging server is logging to file and not the Fabric Manager; must be one or the other
B. Logging server is not set for the correct host
C. Fabric manager does not have logging enabled
D. Logging levels for the server are set to 0
E. This is a licensed feature and license is not installed
Answer: B
QUESTION 375
What command is used to create an interface in VSAN 1 that utilizes IPFC?
A. interface ipfc1
B. vsan interface 1
C. interface vsan 1
D. interface ipfc1 ip 10.0.0 .1 mask 255.255.2550
E. interface ipfc vsan 1 ip 10.0.0.1 mask 255.255.2550

Answer: C

QUESTION 376
Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) is a non-proprietary redundancy protocol described in RFC 3768 designed to increase the availability of the default gateway servicing hosts on the same subnet. What is Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol designed to accomplish?
A. eliminate the single point of failure inherent in static default routed environments
B. reduce the amount of configuration needed for dynamic routing or router discovery protocols
C. provide high availability for Fibre Channel over IP traffic
D. provide support for IPv6

Answer: A
QUESTION 377
Which command would clear the ACL counters for an IPV6 ACL named "restrict"?
A. clear ipv6 access-list
B. ipv6 clear acl name restrict
C. clear ipv6 access-list restrict
D. clear ipv6 access-list name restrict

Answer: C
QUESTION 378
Which description is correct about the desired number of BB credits for a long-distance link of 100 km?
A.The fewer BB credits there are, the less likely that there will be packet loss in the network. B.If there are fewer BB credits, the transmission pipe will not be full, so other applications willbe able to get the
bandwidth they need. C.The FC standard defines the number of credits on a long-distance link. D.The correct number depends on frame size and link speed.
Answer: D
QUESTION 379
Which two statements best describe the port tracking feature?
A.Tracked ports and linked ports can be on different Cisco MDS switches.

B.You may use port tracking to track the state of an FCIP interface.
C.Using the interface configuration command port-track force-shut would cause the linked port to remain down even if the tracked port comes back up.
D.It is not possible to track multiple ports with this feature.

Answer: BC
QUESTION 380
Which configuration commands can enable Cisco SAN-OS FCIP Tape Acceleration and Read Acceleration for a given FCIP link?
A.interface fcip113 switchport description to-remote-tape-fcip113 switchport trunk mode off
switchport mode E
no shutdown
switchport trunk allowed vsan 2013
use-profile 113
peer-info ipaddr 192.168.255.106
tape-accelerator read-accelerator flow-control-buffer-size auto ip-compression auto
B.interface fcip113
switchport description to-remote-tape-fcip113
switchport trunk mode off
switchport mode E
no shutdown
switchport trunk allowed vsan 2013
use-profile 113
peer-info ipaddr 192.168.255.106
write-accelerator tape-accelerator flow-control-buffer-size auto ip-compression auto
C.interface fcip113
switchport description to-remote-tape-fcip113
switchport trunk mode off
switchport mode E
no shutdown
switchport trunk allowed vsan 2013
use-profile 113
peer-info ipaddr 192.168.255.106
write-accelerator tape-accelerator read-accelerator flow-control-buffer-size auto ip-compression auto
D.interface fcip113
switchport description to-remote-tape-fcip113
switchport trunk mode off
switchport mode E
no shutdown
switchport trunk allowed vsan 2013

use-profile 113 peer-info ipaddr 192.168.255.106 write-accelerator read

Answer: B
QUESTION 381
You are working with a customer to configure FICON on a Cisco MDS switch. In order to make sure that the customer can modify the FICON port parameters for the MDS switch from the mainframe, which of these must occur?
A.Mainframe users must be explicitly defined on the MDS switch with the role 'network-admin.' B.In the CUP mainframe device configuration, the HCD parameter must be set to 'control=yes.' C.The customer must configure the host port control command under the MDS FICON VSAN. D.It is not possible to alter the MDS FICON port parameter from the mainframe. Mainframe users can only view
and monitor the MDS FICON port parameters. Changes are made via Cisco Fabric Manager, Cisco Device Manager, or the command-line interface.

Answer: D
QUESTION 382
Which two are necessary for interoperability mode 4? (Choose two.)
A. IVR
B. QoS
C. an interoperability-qualified version of Cisco MDS SAN-OS
D. unique IDs for all VSANs sharing fabric services with a third party switch
Answer: CD
QUESTION 383
Which two features belong to a collapsed-core design? (Choose two.)
A. requires no ISLs
B. host and storage are local to a switch
C. requires ISLs to connect
D. storage islocal, hosts are on a remote switch
Answer: AB QUESTION 384

Refer to the following items, which three are valid Cisco MDS user login authentication methods? (Choose three.)
A. NIS
B. RADIUS
C. TACACS+
D. TACACS+ and Active Directory

Answer: BCD
QUESTION 385
According to this exhibit. For this switch, which line card or cards are allowed and, if more than one is allowed, they must be installed in which order?

A. SSM
B. 16-port line card, SSM
C. 32-port line card, SSM
D. SSM, 16-port line card


Answer: A
QUESTION 386
Which feature is supported by the Cisco MDS SAN-OS IPsec?
A. transport mode
B. security association bundling
C. the per-host security association option in a crypto map
D. AES with 128-or 256-bits encryption using Cipher Block Chaining or counter mode

Answer: D
QUESTION 387
On a Cisco MDS switch, QoS can be applied to which object?
A. VLAN
B. zones
C. host ports
D. storage ports

Answer: B
QUESTION 388
Which three descriptions are true with regard to PortChannel? (Choose three.)
A.You can delete or change the membership to an automatically created PortChannel. B.You cannot delete or change the membership of an automatically created PortChannel. C.When you disable the autocreation feature, all member ports are removed from the automatically created
PortChannel. D.You can enable or disable the autocreation feature on a per-port basis or for all ports in the switch.

Answer: BCD
QUESTION 389
You work as a network engineer for your company. Study the following exhibit carefully. Which module combination at each site can satisfy the requirements for this solution, including the requirement that non-disruptive upgrades be fully supported at both sites?


A. three 16-port modules and one IPS-8 module
B. three 16-port modules and two IPS-8 modules
C. one 16-port module, one 32 port module, and two IPS-8 modules
D. two 32-port modules and two IPS-8 modules

Answer: C
QUESTION 390
Which three types of data can be displayed with Cisco Traffic Analyzer (ntop build v3.1.1)? (Choose three.)
A. VSAN summary
B. iSCSI PDUs
C. SCSI latency
D. Fibre Channel sessions

Answer: ACD
QUESTION 391
Which two options are true? (Choose two.)
A. Up to 256 VSANs can be configured in a switch.
B. In a switch there is one default VSAN, which is VSAN 1.
C. The user specified VSAN ID range is from 1-4092.
D. The isolated VSAN is VSAN 4093.
Answer: AB
QUESTION 392
Which can be eliminated by NASB?

A. master servers
B. media servers
C. all tape backup applications
D. tape drives

Answer: B
QUESTION 393
Which command will permit you to capture a Cisco MDS SAN-OS Fibre Channel trace to a file?
A. fcanalyzer local write booitflash:trace1
B. fcanalyzer local write volatile:trace1
C. fctrace local
D. fcanalyzer local capture bootflash:

Answer: B
QUESTION 394
A customer consolidates several McDATA SAN islands by use of Cisco MDS. The migration plan is to cut over the storage ports to the MDS first. IVR will be used to route between the MDS native VSAN and the individual McDATA interoperability VSANs. The remaining devices on the McDATA VSANs will be moved to the Cisco VSAN in phases.Since there are overlapping Domain IDs across the McData VSANs, which of these must be configured?
A. Cisco Fabric Services
B. Auto Topology
C. IVR service groups
D. IVR NAT

Answer: D
QUESTION 395
If a Fibre Channel port wants to send IP data to another Fibre Channel port, which two statements are correct about ARP layer mapping and operation? (Choose two.)
A.The ARP reply must be addressed to a specific destination Port_ID. B.In a private loop, the ARP request broadcast frame is sent using the broadcast method specified in the FC-SW standard.

C.The ARP ARP request broadcast policy does not apply in a point-to-point topology.
D.The source port should first consult its local mapping tables to determine the destination IP and destination pWWN.

Answer: AD
QUESTION 396
Which two statements accurately describe TCP? (Choose two.)
A.TCP does not require acknowledgement of every single byte it sends. B.The TCP MSS includes both the header and maximum payload. C.TCP is said to be connection-oriented because communication sessions between peers are established by
way of negotiation and are monitored throughout their existence by both endpoints. D.TCP monitors the state of every single byte sent to the remote end.

Answer: CD
QUESTION 397
The Registered State Change Notification (RSCN) is a Fibre Channel service that informs hosts about changes in the fabric. A target device was just taken off line for maintenance. RSCN will be generated for applicable devices in the same zone to notify that the target port has gone down.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
QUESTION 398
A storage area network (SAN) is an architecture to attach remote computer storage devices (such as disk arrays, tape libraries, and optical jukeboxes) to servers in such a way that the devices appear as locally attached to the operating system. Which two cards can be used for SAN extension? (Choose two.)
A. SVM
B. 14+2
C. supervisor-2
D. 18+4
Answer: BD QUESTION 399

Which is used for in-band management of Cisco MDS switches?
A. VRRP
B. FCIP
C. IP over Fibre Channel
D. Fibre Channel

Answer: C
QUESTION 400
Study the following exhibit. The server in VSAN 5 needs storage from the disk in VSAN 10. Which two items are true? (Choose two.)

A. switch(config)# IVR Enable switch(config)# ivr zone name fred switch(config-ivr-zone)# member pwwn 12:23:34:45:56:67:78:89 vsan 5 switch(config-ivr-zone)# member pwwn
22:23:34:45:56:67:78:99 vsan 10 switch(config)# ivr zoneset name IVR_Zoneset_fred switch(config-vir-zoneset)# member fred switch(config)# ivr zoneset activate name IVR_Zoneset_fred
B. the server in VSAN 5 cannot get to storage in VSAN10 in its current state
C. a storage port must be connected to VSAN 5 for the server to get access to storage
D. you can zone host and storage to allow connectivity

Answer: BC QUESTION 401

Which two descriptions are true with regard to Fibre Channel over TCP/IP? (Choose two.)
A. Each connection request is made to Port 3225 or a configured port.
B. A special frame is always used to identify the peers.
C. It uses TCP window management and a sliding window for flow control.
D. Each connection request is made to Port 3260 or a configured port.

Answer: AC
QUESTION 402
The Threshold Monitor permits you to trigger an SNMP event or log a message when a selected statistic exceeds a configured threshold value. Which items are configurable settings in Threshold Monitor?
A. Variable
B. Value
C. Sample
D. Warning

Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 403
What must be eliminated to make migration of storage with a Windows 2003 server that has a redundant connection to two separate fabrics non-disruptive?
A. change the FC-ID assigned to the hosts initiators
B. change the FC-ID assigned to the storage target ports
C. change the assigned FC-ID to the switch WWN
D. the migration of storage with a Windows 2003 server is always non-disruptive

Answer: D
QUESTION 404
Which three commands are needed to enable an iSCSI initiator with the user name 'iscsi-user1' and password 'pa55word' to use local database authentication? (Choose three.)
A. iscsi authentication chap
B. aaa authentication iscsi default local

C. iscsi username iscsi-user password pa55word
D. username iscsi-user password pa55word iscsi

Answer: ABD
QUESTION 405
Which two statements are correct with regard to Ethernet flow control and PAUSE frames? (Choose two.)
A.Using PAUSE frames, a receiver can temporarily interrupt a sender until it is ready to recieve more data. B.The capability to send or receive PAUSE frames is a negotiated parameter. C.This mechanism works at Layer 3 and is completely independent of other well-known mechanisms which
operate at higher levels. D.This mechanism works at Layer 2 and Layer 3 and works jointly with other well-known mechanisms which operate at higher levels.

Answer: AB
QUESTION 406
Which group of operating systems will Cisco Fabric Manager Server support?
A. Windows, AIX, and HP-UX
B. Windows, HP-UX, and Solaris
C. Windows, Solaris, and AIX
D. Windows, Linux, and Solaris

Answer: D
QUESTION 407
The autocreation PortChannel feature is enabled on a Cisco MDS 9509 with mixed Generation 1 and Generation 2 line cards. Which statement is not true about your MDS switch?
A.If you disable autocreation, all member ports will be removed from the automatically created PortChannel. B.The maximum possible PortChannel that can be created is 128. C.The channel group mode is assumed to be "on." D.If you remove the last member from the automatically created PortChannel, the channel will be automatically
deleted.
Answer: C QUESTION 408

You can upgrade the software on all fabric and module switches without any disruptions by use of the install all command for the system software images except which one?
A. Cisco MDS 9222i Multiservice Modular Switch
B. Cisco MDS 9124 Multilayer Fabric Switch
C. Cisco MDS 9216 Multilayer Fabric Switch
D. Cisco Fabric Switch for HP c-Class BladeSystem

Answer: C
QUESTION 409
FCIP is a means of providing a SAN extension over an IP infrastructure, enabling storage applications such as asynchronous data replication, remote tape vaulting, and host initiator to remote pooled storage to be deployed irrespective of latency and distance. Which is a subnet requirement for implementing FCIP?
A.GigE interfaces on all switches must be in the same subnet B.the Cisco MDS management interface and the GigE interface must be in different subnets C.the Cisco MDS management interface and the GigE interface must be in the same subnet D.the Cisco MDS management interface and the GigE interface can be, but do not have to be, in the same
subnet, since cost metrics will resolve routing issues

Answer: B
QUESTION 410
If a 14+2 card fails, what is the minimum number of 14+2 cards needed to avoid a complete loss of connectivity between a single core director and five remote data centers, each with a single core director?
A. 15
B. 6
C. 12
D. 20
Answer: C
QUESTION 411
Which three can be carried by an iSCSI TCP session? (Choose three.)

A. control messages
B. primitive sequences
C. iSCSI PDUs
D. SCSI commands

Answer: ACD
QUESTION 412
Which description is true about the trace output shown in the following exhibit?

A. The FC-IDs are invalid for the type of frames depicted in the trace.
B. The attaching HBA is configured to operate in FL mode.
C. This traffic is showing a Class 3 connection.
D. This traffic is showing the control frames used to bring up an ISL.

Answer: D
QUESTION 413
Which item is false about device aliases?
A.By default, device aliases are distributed using Cisco Fabric Services. B.Device aliases can be used only for zoning. C.The device aliases feature is included in the basic Cisco MDS license.

D.The device alias "enhanced" mode permits a single point of change if a mapping from a pWWN to a device alias requires changing.

Answer: B
QUESTION 414
Which Cisco MDS SAN-OS feature can not use Cisco Fabric Services?
A. SDV
B. NPV
C. DVPM
D. Port Security

Answer: B
QUESTION 415
In order to enable read-only zones, what license package should be installed?
A. SAN extension over IP
B. enterprise package
C. no license required
D. Cisco Fabric Manager Server
Answer: B
QUESTION 416
When issuing the following command, which action will take place?
switch(config)# no fcdomain domain 18 static vsan 237
A. An RCF will be generated.
B. A BF will be generated.
C. The configured domain ID in VSAN 237 will become 0 preferred.
D. The VSAN will be suspended, because there is no domain ID available.
Answer: C
QUESTION 417

You work as a network technician for your company.
Given: On a 24-port line card, each of three ports in a port group has 4 GB dedicated to it. No traffic is present.
Question: What bandwidth is available to the non-dedicated bandwidth ports in the port group?
A. 0.8 182
B. 3.8
C. 12.8
D. 4.8

Answer: C
QUESTION 418
Which FICON port configurations are permitted?
A. switch(config)# ficon slot 3 assign port-numbers 0-15, 48-63
B. switch(config)# ficon slot 3 assign port-numbers 0-15, 0-15
C. switch(config)# ficon slot 3 assign port-numbers 0-63
D. switch(config)# ficon slot 3 assign port-numbers 0-15, 56-63

Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 419
You are a member of the SAN team in your company. Your team has preconfigured the VSAN 1 and switch priority on three new switches. These switches will soon be interconnected through ISLs. After the ISLs were brought up, a principal switch was selected; but after 30 minutes, the principal switch failed and a new one was selected. According to the following information, which switch was chosen to be the initial principal switch and which switch became principal after the failure?
Switch1: SWWN: 20:22:11:22:33:44:33:11 -Configured Switch Priority: 128 Switch2: SWWN: 20:22:11:22:33:44:33:22 -Configured Switch Priority: 1 Switch3: SWWN: 20:22:11:22:33:44:33:33 -Configured Switch Priority: 128(default)
A. Switch1, Switch3
B. Switch1, Switch2
C. Switch2, Switch1
D. Switch2, Switch3
Answer: C QUESTION 420

Which two can be done by the Cisco Fabric Manager Server web GUI? (Choose two.)
A. modify configurations on switches
B. manage switches
C. poll switches for flow statistics and display performance data
D. display switch inventory information

Answer: CD
QUESTION 421
Which description is correct about the location of the data virtual target, control virtual target, and virtual initiator host in SANTap Proxy Mode-2?
A. The DVT and VI reside in the appliance, while the CVT resides in the switch.
B. The DVT and CVT reside in the switch, while the VI resides in the appliance.
C. The DVT and VI reside in the switch, while the CVT resides in the appliance.
D. The DVT, CVT, and VI reside in the switch.

Answer: D
QUESTION 422
Which description is true with regard to FSPF passive interfaces?
A.The Cisco MDS will not send any FSPF frames outbound, even if FSPF frames are seen inbound B.The 'FSPF light' protocol will be used as opposed to standard FSPF, and must be configured on both ends. C.The Cisco MDS will only send FSPF frames outbound if FSFP frames are seen inbound. D.The Cisco MDS will not send FCC squelch frames outbound even if FCC is enabled.
Answer: A
QUESTION 423
Which is not SCSI Sequential Access Device command?
A. Inquiry
B. Read Block Limits
C. Read Capacity

D. Report LUNs

Answer: C
QUESTION 424
You have a fully redundant end-to-end SAN infrastructure which contains dual fabrics with redundant supervisors. Which identifies other attributes included in the infrastructure?
A.dual-attached storage target ports and single-HBA-attached hosts with multipathing software B.dual-attached storage target ports and dual attached hosts with multipathing software C.port channels between the two fabrics, one storage target port, and dual-attached hosts with multipathing
software D.dual-attached storage target ports and dual-attached hosts with no multipathing software

Answer: B
QUESTION 425
Which three state descriptions are true about a standard iSCSI connection? (Choose three.)
A. Termination
B. Logged_In
C. Free
D. In_Login
Answer: BCD
QUESTION 426
Which option is correct about SCSI Configured AutoMatically?
A. A "SCAM Target" can initiate the SCAM protocol and assign bus IDs to SCAM initiators.
B. A "SCAM Initiator" can initiate the SCAM protocol and assign bus IDs to SCAM targets.
C. Any SCAM initiator can isolate SCAM targets and assign bus IDs to them.
D. Once all devices are ready to receive a bus ID assignment, the SCAM protocol is complete.
Answer: B
QUESTION 427
What will happen after enabling the DPVM feature on a switch?

A.The pWWNs for the hosts are virtualized so that the storage will always see the same WWN.
B.A switch port can be a member of multiple VSANs. C.The name server will automatically place the device performing the PLOGI into the correct VSAN.
D.A host or storage device connection preserves its VSAN membership when moved between two different ports.

Answer: D
QUESTION 428
Refer to the following items, which is the total bandwidth allocated per port group on Generation 2 12-, 24-, and 48-port line cards?
A. 16.2Gb/s
B. 8.4Gb/s
C. 4.8Gb/s
D. 12.8Gb/s

Answer: D
QUESTION 429
Which two features are of an FSPF-based load-balancing high-availability non-port channel configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Each FCIP link is a separate ISL or EISL.
B. The Fibre Channel traffic can not be load-balanced across the FCIP links.
C. The FCIP links may connect to two different Cisco MDS switches across SAN islands.
D. All FCIP links must connect to the same two Cisco MDS switches across SAN islands.

Answer: AC
QUESTION 430
Which three are optional parameters while configuring iSCSI Server Load Balancing initiator targets if the target is offline? (Choose three.)
A. secondary pWWN
B. LUN mapping
C. VRRP
D. primary pWWN


Answer: ABD
QUESTION 431
On a Cisco MDS 9000 switch performing SAN OS 3.x, VSAN 3 has been configured in interoperability mode 4. According to the command outputs below, can you tell me the reason that the connectivity between the MDS switch and the McDATA switch would fail?
MDS# show vsan 3 vsan 3 information name:VSAN0003 state:active interoperability mode:4 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
MDS# show fcdomain vsan 3 The local switch is the Principal Switch. Local switch run time information: State: Stable Local switch WWN: 2b:c0:00:0c:85:e9:d2:c1 Running fabric name: 2b:c0:00:0c:85:e9:d2:c1 Running priority: 128 Current domain ID: 0x0a(10)
A. the MDS is the principal switch, which is not allowed in interoperability mode 4
B. VSANs in interoperability mode 4 should be configured with "loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id"
C. VSAN 3 WWN does not contain the McDATA OUI
D. the configured domain ID is not in the range 97-127
Answer: C
QUESTION 432
Which statements best describe Fibre Channel timers? (Choose two.)
A.The D_S_TOV and E_D_TOV values cannot be globally changed unless all VSANs in the switch are suspended. B.You can configure the Fibre Channel timers on a per-VSAN basis. C.The valid range for D_S_TOV is from 1,000 to 10,000 milliseconds. D.You can perform a non-disruptive downgrade to any earlier version that does not support per-VSAN Fibre Channel timers.


Answer: AB
QUESTION 433
Which three must be configured before configuring a new FCIP tunnel? (Choose three.)
A. Mgmt 0 interfaces
B. GigE interfaces
C. an FCIP interface
D. an FCIP profile

Answer: BCD
QUESTION 434
Which statement is true about the bandwidth fairness feature of MDS Generation 2 Fibre Channel line card modules?
A.It is available only if an enterprise license is on the switch.
B.It is enabled by default.
C.When enabling or disabling it, you must reload the module.
D.You can only enable it for Generation 1 modules; for Generation 2 modules it is always enabled and cannot be disabled.

Answer: C
QUESTION 435
Which description is true about the use of enhanced mode for device aliases?
A.If two fabrics running in different device alias modes are joined together, the device alias merge will fail. If you select enhanced mode, you must ensure that all switches are running Cisco SAN-OS release 3.1(1) or later.
B.When a new device alias is added to the device alias database and the application configuration is present on that device alias, it does not automatically take effect. For example, if the corresponding device alias is part of the active zone set and the device is online, then zoning is not enforced automatically; you must reactive the zone set.
C.If two fabrics running in different device alias modes are joined together, the device aliases databases will merge. There is an automatic conversion to enhanced mode if one fabric is configured to use enhanced mode for device aliases.
D.Renaming the device alias only changes the device alias name in the device aliasdatabase, it does not replace the corresponding device alias configuration in any of the applications.


Answer: A
QUESTION 436
Which two statements are correct with regard to FC-WA? (Choose two.)
A.Write acceleration and compression is available with the SSM. B.SSM and 14+2 line cards are required. C.Each target can be on the same switch as the SSM, and must be inserted into SSM Fibre Channel ports. D.FC-WA can be bidirectional.

Answer: CD
QUESTION 437
When a switch supporting enhanced zoning joins a fabric, which SW_ILS command can determine the enhanced zoning capabilities of the other switches in the fabric?
A. ELP
B. ESS
C. EFP
D. ESC

Answer: B
QUESTION 438
Which is the host-bandwidth-to-storage-bandwidth oversubscription for this fabric according to the following exhibit?

A. 10:1
B. 5:6
C. 1:12
D. 12:1


Answer: A
QUESTION 439
Small Computer System Interface or SCSI is a set of standards for physically connecting and transferring data between computers and peripheral devices. Which SCSI command returns a list of logical unit numbers to which additional commands may be issued?
A. Read
B. Read Capacity
C. Report LUNs
D. Inquiry

Answer: C
QUESTION 440
What are the primary differences between Coarse Wavelength Division Multiplexing (CWDM) and Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing (DWDM)?
A. The spacing between the wavelengths being multiplexed
B. The number of channels
C. Ability to multiplex various services onto different wavelengths
D. Cost

Answer: ABD
QUESTION 441
ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from where to where?
A.from the alias server of a requesting switch to the alias server of a responding switch B.from the management server of a requesting switch to the management server of a responding switch C.from the domain controller of a requesting switch to the domain controller of a responding switch D.from the time server of a requesting switch to the time server of a responding switch
Answer: C
QUESTION 442
Which two options are true concerning RCF? (Choose two.)

A. The domain ID list will be cleared.
B. The source address is FF.FF.FA.
C. All active sequences are terminated.
D. It is caused by a Build Fabric.

Answer: AC
QUESTION 443
Which Fibre Channel class of service or classes of service could support F_BSY?
A. Class 2
B. Class 2 and Class 3
C. Class F
D. no class supports F_BSY

Answer: A
QUESTION 444
You are a network engineer for your company. You are asked to upgrade a Cisco MDS 9506 from SAN-OS 3.1.3a to SAN-OS 3.2.1. The new image has been correctly copied into bootflash and all the modules on the switch are online, as provided in the output below: myswitch# dir bootflash: 4592984 Oct 08 16:09:25 2007 m9000-ek9-ssi-mz.3.1.3.bin 14572544 Sep 25 12:39:12 2007 m9500-sf1ek9-kickstart-mz.3.1.3a.bin 76050038 Sep 26 09:16:45 2007 m9500-sf1ek9-mz.3.1.3a.bin 16625152 Nov 06 18:50:25 2007 m9500-sf2ek9-kickstart-mz.3.2.1.bin 88547112 Nov 06 18:41:28 2007 m9500-sf1ek9-mz.3.2.1.bin
But, when you issue the install all command, it fails and displays the following message: myswitch# show install all impact kickstart bootflash:m9500-sf2ek9-kickstart-mz.3.2.1.bin system bootflash:m9500-sf1ek9-mz.3.2.1.bin
Verifying image bootflash:/m9500-sf2ek9-kickstart-mz.3.2.1.bin for boot variable "kickstart". [# ] 0% --FAIL. Return code 0x4045001D (incompatible image with platform). Version Compatibility check failed. Return code 0x40930011 (Image verification failed).


According to the output of the show module command in the exhibit, can you tell me what most likely causes the upgrade procedure failing?
A.the kickstart image cannot be copied to the standby supervisor B.the kickstart image is for a MDS 9200 plaftform C.the kickstart image is for an MDS 9509 platform, while your switch is an MDS9506 D.the kickstart image is for an MDS 9500 platform with supervisor-2 cards while you have a platform with
supervisor-1 cards

Answer: D
QUESTION 445
Which is the default type of database in which Cisco Fabric Manager Server stores the inventory, fabric configuration, and states of ports in a SAN?
A. MySQL
B. HSQL
C. PostgreSQL
D. Oracle Express
Answer: C
QUESTION 446
MDS-9# show ips status Port 3/1 READY Port 3/2 READY Port 3/3 READY Port 3/4 READY Port 3/5 READY Port 3/6 READY Port 3/7 READY Port 3/8 READY Port 6/1 READY Port 6/2 READY Port 6/3 READY

Port 6/4 READY Port 6/5 READY Port 6/6 READY Port 6/7 READY Port 6/8 READY
MDS-9# show ips netsim
Following ports operate in network simulator mode
GigabitEthernet3/1 and GigabitEthernet3/2 GigabitEthernet3/3 and GigabitEthernet3/4 GigabitEthernet3/5 and GigabitEthernet3/6 GigabitEthernet3/7 and GigabitEthernet3/8 GigabitEthernet6/1 and GigabitEthernet6/2 GigabitEthernet6/3 and GigabitEthernet6/4 GigabitEthernet6/5 and GigabitEthernet6/6 GigabitEthernet6/7 and GigabitEthernet6/8
Based on the above output from a switch, which ports can be used to set up a network simulator between two FCIP endpoints?
A. GigabitEthernet 3/1 and GigabitEthernet 6/2
B. GigabitEthernet 6/3 and GigabitEthernet 6/4
C. None --netsim not supported on the IPS card
D. GigabitEthernet 3/4 and GigabitEthernet 3/5
Answer: B
QUESTION 447

You have two dedicated 1-GB ports available on a 48-port line card. Which combination will cause no oversubscription for LT03 and LT04 tape drives?
A. two LT03 tape drives
B. one LT04 tape drive
C. two LT04 tape drives
D. one LT03 and one LT04 tape drive

Answer: A
QUESTION 448
A command-line interface (CLI) is a mechanism for interacting with a computer operating system or software by typing commands to perform specific tasks. Which CLI command will be used to verify that the user "userA" and the password "pa55word" can be authenticated by the TACACS+ server at IP address 172.18.125.111?
A. aaa test userA tacacs+ 172.18.125.111 password pa55word
B. aaa test userA password pa55word
C. testaaa server tacacs+ 172.18.125.111 userA pa55word
D. It is not possible to test if a user can be authenticated by a TACACS+ server from the CLI.

Answer: C
QUESTION 449
Which one of the following protocols is supported on Cisco MDS GigE ports to allow for creating Subinterfaces?
A. UDP
B. 802.1a
C. 802.3
D. 802.1q

Answer: D
QUESTION 450
In a full mesh design, for which the "A" and "B" fabrics are connected by ISLs or port channels, which three items are highly available? (Choose three.)
A. IVR+NAT
B. VRRP

C. SANTap
D. SNMP

Answer: BCD
QUESTION 451
At which three levels will storage virtualization occur? (Choose three.)
A. array
B. LUN
C. target
D. file system

Answer: ABC
QUESTION 452
Which benefits are of enabling persistent binding on an HBA?
A. allows the same FC-ID to be allocated to a Fibre Channel device
B. prevents other hosts from accessing a specific target
C. allows a permanent SCSI target ID on the host to be assigned to a storage device's pWWN
D. allows the same domain ID to be allocated to a switch in a VSAN

Answer: C
QUESTION 453
Which steps are correct for enabling a Cisco MDS switch to interoperate with a McDATA legacy switch running in McDATA Fabric 1.0 mode?
A. -suspend the VSAN you will be using -change the interop mode on the VSAN to interop mode 4 -create a unique VSAN WWN for the VSAN that contains the McDATA OUI -change the domain ID to be a static decimal number within the range of 1-31 -unsuspend the VSAN
B. -create a unique VSAN WWN using the McDATA OUI -change the interop mode on the vsan to interop mode McDATA -change the domain ID to be a static decimal number within the range of 97-127 -restart the domain disruptively
C. -suspend the VSAN you will be using -change the domain ID to be a static decimal number within the range of 97-127

-change the interop mode on the VSAN to interop mode 1
-create a unique VSAN WWN using the McDATA OUI
-unsuspend the VSAN
D. -change the interop mode on the VSAN to interop mode 4 -create a unique VSAN WWN using the McDATA OUI -change the domain ID to be a static decimal number within the range of 1-31 -restart the domain disruptively

Answer: A
QUESTION 454
The Cisco MDS switch has a set of advanced traffic engineering and advanced security features. Your customer has two Cisco MDS switches. MDS1 is a 9513 switch that is populated exclusively with Generation 2 line cards. MDS2 is a 9509 switch that is populated with Generation 1 and Generation 2 line cards. What is the maximum number of port channels that can be used for connecting the two chassis?
A. 16
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256

Answer: C
QUESTION 455
One of your customers distributes device aliases throughout a fabric by use of Cisco Fabric Services. While adding a new Cisco MDS switch to the fabric, which task or tasks must be taken place on the new switch in order to distribute the initial device alias?
A. bring up the ISL
B. bring up the ISL, enable the device alias, distribute the device alias
C. bring up the ISL, enable the device alias, distribute the device alias, commit the device alias
D. bring up the ISL, enable the device alias, commit the device alias, distribute the device alias

Answer: A
QUESTION 456
Which two setups are correct for capturing a PLOGI and a PLOGI Accept from a Fibre Channel target using SPAN? (Choose two.)

A. SPAN both theTx and the Rx interfaces of the initiator interface and the target interface
B. SPAN theTx and Rx on the SPAN destination interface
C. SPAN theTx and Rx on the initiator interface
D. SPAN theTx on the target interface

Answer: AC
QUESTION 457
Which three types of backend databases will Cisco FMS support? (Choose three.)
A. SQL Server
B. Oracle Express
C. HSQLDB
D. Oracle

Answer: BCD
QUESTION 458
What is the SCSI Read Capacity command used for?
A. to determine the number of blocks that can be written at one time
B. to report the total number of blocks and the block size of a disk
C. to transfer logical blocks from a target to an initiator
D. to transfer logical blocks from an initiator to a target
Answer: B
QUESTION 459
A Cisco MDS 9134 switch has which default FICON port allocation schemes?
A. Slot1 1-32
B. Slot1 1-34
C. Slot1 0-31
D. Slot1 0-33
Answer: D
QUESTION 460

Which of these can perform flow control for an FCIP Tape Acceleration read operation (during a restore)? (Note: Assume the host is local and the tape drive is remote.)
A. local Cisco MDS switch
B. SCSI Transfer Ready command
C. remote Cisco MDS switch
D. TCP/IP selective acknowledgement

Answer: C
QUESTION 461
Add a 24-port blade to an existing Generation 1 Cisco MDS 9509 switch with Generation 1 supervisors. All ports on the 24-port blade are in shared rate mode. Port 1/1 from an MDS 9216A switch is connected to port 2/12 on the 24-port blade of the MDS 9509 switch. How many buffer credits are allocated to port 2/12 on the MDS 9509 switch?
A. 16
B. 64
C. 256
D. none, as the ISL would not come up

Answer: D
QUESTION 462
Which description is correct concerning iSCSI?
A. It requires two UDP connections at all times.
B. It can support a single active session.
C. It requires a license to be enabled.
D. It requires two TCP connections at all times.

Answer: B
QUESTION 463
Which two characteristics are contained in a FCIP PortChannel-based load-balancing high-availability configuration? (Choose two.)
A.The FCIP links may connect to two different Cisco MDS switches across SAN islands. B.All FCIP links in the PortChannel must connect to the same two Cisco MDS switches across SAN islands.

C.Each FCIP link must reside in a separate VSAN. D.The Fibre Channel traffic is load-balanced across the FCIP links in the PortChannel.

Answer: BD
QUESTION 464
Which method is best for creating a highly available iSCSI infrastructure?
A. multipathing, VRRP, ISLB
B. PortChannel, EtherChannel, iSCSI proxy mode
C. VSAN, EtherChannel
D. VRRP, dynamic port tracking

Answer: A
QUESTION 465
You work as a network engineer for your company. A Brocade 12000 in its native corePID mode (1) is connected to VSAN 100 on a Cisco MDS. Which output is correct about the show vsan 100 command?
A. vsan 100 information name:VSAN100 state:active interoperability mode:Brocade Native loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
B. vsan 100 information name:VSAN100 state:active interoperability mode:default loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
C. vsan 100 information name:VSAN100 state:active interoperability mode:1 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
D. vsan 100 information name:VSAN100 state:active interoperability mode:3 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up
Answer: D QUESTION 466

FICON (for Fiber Connectivity) is a high-speed input/output (I/O) interface for mainframe computer connections to storage devices. You have two Cisco MDS 9509 switches for a FICON connection. FCIP is used between the two switches. On each switch is one 24-port module, two 32-port modules, and one 48-port module. What is the first available FICON port number for the FCIP connection on the switches?
A. 212
B. 136
C. 176
D. 224

Answer: D
QUESTION 467
Which objective can the FICON CUP achieve?
A. define storage peripheral devices to an IBM mainframe
B. provide in-band management of a switch by the mainframe
C. allow switches from different vendors to connect and interoperate
D. provide redundancy between multiple mainframe sysplexes

Answer: B
QUESTION 468
The following command has been performed on a 48-port line card:
switch(config)# no rate-mode oversubscription-limit module 1
In port group 1, ports 1/1-1/3 are set to 4 GB dedicated and moving traffic. What is the bandwidth available for ports 1/4-1/12?
A. the remaining ports must be shut down
B. the remaining bandwidth can be shared among them
C. those ports will be out of service
D. 0.8 GB will be available to only one of the remaining ports
Answer: B QUESTION 469

How to configure the events within an RMON group by use of either Cisco Fabric Manager or Cisco Device Manager or both?
A.On the Device Managermenu toolbar, click Admin > Events > Threshold Manager B.On the Fabric Managermenu toolbar, click Logs > FM Server > Events > Threshold Manager C.On the Device Managermenu toolbar, click FC > Advanced > Threshold Manager D.RMON groups cannot be configured from Fabric Manager or Device Manager.

Answer: A
QUESTION 470
Which three statements best describe IVR service groups? (Choose three.)
A.To reduce the amount of traffic to non-IVR-enabled VSANs, you can configure service groups that restrict the traffic to the IVR-enabled VSANs. B.You can modify the active IVR service group database directly. C.When a new IVR-enabled switch is added to the network, you must update the service groups to include the new VSANs. D.Cisco Fabric Services will distribute IVR information exclusively within the service group only if the IVR VSAN topology is in automatic mode.

Answer: ACD
QUESTION 471
Both your storage and mainframe are connected to a Cisco MDS switch. If the mainframe could not configure a FICON connection to the storage, which three CLI commands should be used on the MDS switch? (Choose three.)
A. host port control
B. port no prohibit
C. host set-timestamp
D. host control switch
Answer: ACD
QUESTION 472
What objectives can be achieved by the iSCSI login?

A. to enable a TCP connection for iSCSI use
B. to authenticate parties
C. to negotiate session parameters
D. to mark a connection as belonging to an iSCSI session

Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 473
Which description is correct with regard to the Device Alias feature?
A.You can map multiple pWWNs to the same device alias. B.Device aliases are limited to specified VSANs. C.Device alias configuration is available to the FCNS, zone, fcping, traceroute, and IVR applications. D.You can map multiple device aliases to the same pWWN.

Answer: C
QUESTION 474
Which two statements correctly describe SCSI Device Virtualization (SDV)? (Choose two.)
A.When using SDV, pWWN zoning must also be used.
B.A virtual device is identified by a name of up to 32 characters and defines all the real devices, both primary and secondary, that it represents. C.You must create two zones, one for all the real devices and one for all the virtual devices.
D.When you enable SDV, Cisco Fabric Services distribution is also enabled; Cisco Fabric Services distribution cannot be disabled for SDV.
Answer: BD
QUESTION 475
Which two options are true according to the following Cisco MDS configuration information? (Choose two.)
switch(config)# ivr fcdomain database autonomous-fabric-num 2 vsan 61 switch(config-fcdomain)#native-autonomous-fabric-num 3 native-vsan 61 domain 65 switch(config-fcdomain-fcid)#
pwwn 10:00:00:e0:69:f0:46:14 fcid 0x410001
A. The real device with pWWN 10:00:00:0e:69:f0:46:14 resides in AFID 2 ,VSAN 61.

B. The real device with pWWN 10:00:00:0e:69:f0:46:14 resides in AFID 3 ,VSAN 61.
C. Domain 0x65 will be used in AFID 3 VSAN 61 to represent devices from AFID 2 VSAN 61.
D. This switch must have IVR NAT enabled in configuration mode.

Answer: BD
QUESTION 476
One of your customers is implementing DMM and should apply a new Cisco SAN-OS version to the switches in both legs of a redundant fabric. The upgrades should be accomplished on one fabric at a time. What will be the impact on a running DMM session?
A.The DMM sessions must be halted prior to the upgrades. Failure to do so may result in data corruption. B.None.redundant, so while one fabric is being upgraded, all I/O will be routed to the second fabric and SSM
module. C.The DMM session will fail. After all upgrades are complete, the DMM session must be restarted. D.None. Cisco SAN-OS upgrades are designed to be hit-less. There will be no effects on the
traffic or DMM sessions.

Answer: C
QUESTION 477
A customers has a Cisco MDS 9513 switch with one 12-port line card, one 48-port line card, and seven 24-port line cards in it. The customer wants more ports. Which line card can be added to the chassis?
A. two IPS-8 blades
B. two 16-port line cards
C. one 32-port line card
D. one 16-port line card

Answer: D
QUESTION 478
You are a network technician of your company. And you are asked to connect two data center SANs located 200 km apart from each other. These data centers will need connectivity between each other for disaster recovery purposes and will be using full Fibre Channel frame sizes of 2112 bytes. You currently own two DSDM connections providing 2 Gb/s per connection between the two sites. According to these design parameters, could a default 2 Gb/s Cisco MDS TE port be used for connectivity?
A.No, because the maximum speed that could be configured on these ISLs at this distance and with full Fibre Channel frames is 1Gb/s.

B.No, unless you have buffer-to-buffer spoofing enabled on the optical switch.
C.No, because the default buffer-to-buffer credits would not be sufficient at this distance with a speed of 2Gp/s
per TE link and full Fibre Channel frame sizes.
D.Yes, this is within the allowable range for the default buffer-to-buffer credit configuration and would work with full Fibre Channel frame sizes.

Answer: D
QUESTION 479
Which two items are true concerning how to use Cisco Traffic Analyzer on a Cisco MDS switch? (Choose two.)
A. to monitor Fibre Channel host initiator traffic
B. to monitor Fibre Channel storage target port traffic
C. to analyze Fibre Channel network usage
D. to integrate with ntop and provide real-time traffic analysis

Answer: CD
QUESTION 480
Which two can reduce latency effects in SAN extension? (Choose two.)
A. FCIP-WA
B. IPFC-WA
C. FC-WA
D. FCIP compression
Answer: AC
QUESTION 481
How many ports are licensed by default on a Cisco MDS 9134 switch?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 16
D. 24
Answer: D QUESTION 482

Which one of the following items is the system-defined CLI variable?
A. $(HOSTNAME)
B. $(TIMESTAMP)
C. $(BOOTPATH)
D. $(MGMT0)

Answer: B
QUESTION 483
Which command syntax is correct to restrain the transmission of SW-RSCNs over an ISL on a Cisco MDS 9509?
A. rscn suspend swrscn vsan X
B. rscn suspend domain-swrscn
C. rscn suppress domain-swrscn
D. rscn suppress domain-swrscn vsan X

Answer: D
QUESTION 484
Which SCSI command can determine the device type of a particular logical unit, and also may include basic information about implemented options and the device product name?
A. Test Unit Ready
B. Report LUNs
C. Read
D. Inquiry
Answer: D
QUESTION 485
Which three statements accurately describe the E_D_TOV? (Choose three.)
A.It is a timer used as the timeout value for determining when to reinstate a Recovery_Qualifier. B.It is a timer with a default value of two seconds that is used for detecting protocol error conditions. C.During fabric login, it is negotiated by the N_Port and the fabric as one of the common service parameters

exchanged. D.It represent a limit on the amount of time within which an action can be taken after the transmission of consecutive data frames within a single sequence.

Answer: BCD
QUESTION 486
Your company configures a Cisco MDS switch with AAA server-based authentication. If you can log in to the switch successfully through Telnet or SSH using Cisco Fabric Manager or Cisco Device Manager, a temporary SNMP user entry will be automatically created. Which is the expiry time of this entry?
A. 12 hours
B. 1 hour
C. 1day
D. 5 days

Answer: C
QUESTION 487
Which license feature is required by SAN Extension Tuner?
A. SAN-EXTN_OVER_IP
B. STORAGE_SERVCIES_ENABLER_PKG
C. MAINFRAME_PKG
D. ENTERPRISE_PKG

Answer: A
QUESTION 488
The Initiator with a Device-alias of aix2c can not see the Target with a Device-Alias named cdl-bp8-target. Which is the most likely cause for this problem?
A. The Zone name is invalid.
B. There is no proper Zoneset name configured for VSAN 2013.
C. The Target is not registered in the name server in its native VSAN.
D. The Target and Initiator do not reside in the same VSAN.
Answer: C QUESTION 489

Bank1----------------------------------------------------------------Bank 2 VSAN 100-----------------500 (Transit VSAN) ------------------VSAN 100 Domain ID 1 Domain ID 2 Study this exhibit carefully. Recently, two banks have merged and their data centers need to be connected without merging the individual fabrics. The SAN Architect decides that IVR is required. But, the production VSAN IDs at each site are not unique. Which item can be used to merge the two bank data centers?
A. the data centers cannot be merged
B. IVR service groups
C. different AFIDs
D. IVR1

Answer: C
QUESTION 490
Which three benefits are of virtualizing storage arrays? (Choose three.)
A. the ability to seamlessly move one LUN to another LUN without impacting the host
B. the ability to seamlessly increase the size of a LUN without impacting the host
C. the ability to seamlessly migrate applications between hosts with no disruption
D. the ability to virtualize multiple storage arrays

Answer: ABD
QUESTION 491
Set all ports in a 48-port line card to 1 GB dedicated, with all remaining options set to the defaults. You have two available 1-GB switchport mode dedicated ports on a 48-port line card. You should attach an LT04 tape drive. If you decide to allow the tape drive to run up to its line rate, what should you do?
A. Put one of the available 1-GB ports out of service.
B. Set the LT04 port to 2 GB dedicated and one port to shared unlimited oversubscription.
C. Put both ports into shared mode.
D. LT04 requires a 4 GB port.
Answer: B