QUESTION NO: 1
Which two are advantages of a modular data center design? (Choose two.)
A. complexity
B. scalability
C. ease of management
D. resilience
Answer: B,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Which two describe functions of the data center aggregation layer? (Choose two.)
A. repeater
B. high-speed packet switching
C. access control
D. services layer
E. QoS marking
Answer: C,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 3
Which two are functional layers of a collapsed-core LAN design? (Choose two.)
A. core
B. aggregation
C. access
D. distribution
E. services
Answer: A,C Explanation: QUESTION NO: 4



Which two Cisco data center devices can participate in FabricPath? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
B. Cisco Nexus 1000V
C. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
E. Cisco MDS 9500 Series directors
Answer: A,C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
Which item best describes the STP requirements for Cisco FabricPath?
A. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath VLAN.
B. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath Border interface.
C. MST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath VLAN.
D. MST must be configured on every Cisco FPBI.
E. STP is required only to resolve border link failures.
F. STP is not required on Cisco FabricPath interfaces.
Answer: F Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 6
Which three are features of Cisco OTV? (Choose three.)
A. control plane-based MAC learning
B. dynamic encapsulation
C. MAC address learning based on flooding
D. pseudo wires and tunnels
E. complex dual-homing
F. native automated multihoming
Answer: A,B,F Explanation: QUESTION NO: 7



Which is a key characteristic of virtual device contexts?
A. allowing logical switches to be aggregated into a single physical switch
B. allowing logical switches to be aggregated into multiple physical switches
C. allowing physical switches to be partitioned to a single virtual switch
D. allowing physical switches to be partitioned to multiple virtual switches
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
Which three are characteristics of the SAN core-edge design? (Choose three.)
A. few devices to manage
B. deterministic latency
C. lower oversubscription
D. fewer ISLs
E. easy to analyze and tune performance
F. cost-effective for large SANs
Answer: B,E,F Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 9
Which two Cisco Nexus switches are capable of Layer 3 switching? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7010
B. Cisco Nexus 5020
C. Cisco Nexus 5548
D. Cisco Nexus 2248
E. Cisco Nexus 2232
Answer: A,C Explanation:



QUESTION NO: 10
Which command pings from the Cisco Nexus 5548 interface mgmt 0 to host 10.10.1.1?
A. ping -m 10.10.1.1
B. ping 10.10.1.1 -m
C. ping 10.10.1.1 vrf management
D. ping 10.10.1.1 vrf default
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
Which two are configuration elements selected during initial setup of the Cisco MDS 9100 Series Fibre Channel Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet bits
B. SNMPv3 community strings
C. Zone port distribution
D. Enforce password complexity
E. Default switchport mode F
Answer: D,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 12
Which two are configuration elements selected during initial setup of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet bits
B. SNMPv3 community strings
C. VDC mode
D. Default interface layer
E. Default interface state

F. CoPP
Answer: D,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 13
Which two protocols are encapsulated in FCoE? (Choose two.)
A. NSF
B. Fibre Channel

C. CIFS
D. SCSI
E. iSCSI
Answer: B,D Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 14
Which two are benefits of Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose two.)
A. native AES-256 encryption of data in flight
B. consolidation of LAN and SAN over a common transport
C. zone port distribution
D. reduced cabling
E. SNMPv3 strong authentication
Answer: B,D Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 15
Which IEEE protocol provides bandwidth management and priority selection?
A. Priority-based Flow Control (802.1Qbb)
B. Enhanced Transmission Selection (802.1Qaz)
C. Bandwidth Demand Circuit (802.1Qax)

D. Quantized Congestion Control (802.1Qau)
E. Data Center Bridging Exchange (802.1Qab)
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 16
How many bits of the IEEE 802.1p CoS field are used to map traffic classes that enable lossless fabric in FCoE?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 6
F. 8
Answer: C Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 17
Which three devices can participate in multihop FCoE? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
B. Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches
C. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 1000 Series Switches
E. Cisco MDS 9500 Series Switches
Answer: A,B,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 18
Which type of interface is created on the Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch to represent ports connected to a FEX?

A. HIF (host interface)
B. LIF (logical interface)
C. connected Ethernet
D. SIF (satellite interface)
E. VIF (virtual interface)
Answer: E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 19
Which two differentiate the Cisco Nexus 2148T and Cisco Nexus 2248T Fabric Extenders? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
B. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports 100-Mb and 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
C. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports FCoE on all 48 host ports.
D. The Cisco Nexus 2248T supports 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
E. The Cisco Nexus 2248T supports 100-Mb and 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
Answer: A,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 20
Which Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender supports FCoE?
A. 2148T
B. 2224T
C. 2248T
D. 2248TP
E. 2232PP
F. 2232TM
Answer: E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 21

Which four Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders support host port channels? (Choose four.)
A. 2148T
B. 2224T
C. 2248T
D. 2248TP

E. 2232PP
F. 2232TM
Answer: C,D,E,F Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22
Which three Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders include four 10GE fabric connections to the upstream switch? (Choose three.)
A. 2148T
B. 2224T
C. 2248T
D. 2248TP
E. 2232PP

F. 2232TM
Answer: A,C,D Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 23
What is the licensing grace period allowed on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches?
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 90 days
D. 120 days
E. 150 days
F. 180 days
Answer: D Explanation: QUESTION NO: 24



Which two Cisco Nexus 2000-Series Fabric Extenders support connections to both Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches and Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 2248TP
B. Cisco Nexus 2248TP-E
C. Cisco Nexus 2232PP
D. Cisco Nexus 2232TM
Answer: A,C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
Which IEEE protocol allows Ethernet to operate as a lossless fabric?
A. Priority-based Flow Control (802.1Qbb)
B. Enhanced Transmission Selection ( 802.1Qaz)
C. Bandwidth Demand Circuit (802.1Qax)
D. Quantized Congestion Control (802.1Qau)
E. Data Center Bridging Exchange (802.1Qab)
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 26
Which two are controls between initiators and targets on a Fibre Channel network? (Choose two.)
A. Fibre Channel fencing
B. LUN masking
C. zoning
D. access control list
E. port security
Answer: B,C Explanation:



QUESTION NO: 27
Which command would you use to determine the serial number used to apply for a Product Activation Key?
A. MDS-A# show license version
B. MDS-A# show running-config | include serial-number
C. MDS-A# show license serial-number
D. MDS-A# show host-id
E. MDS-A# show license host-id
Answer: E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 28
Which is the correct port type for a Fibre Channel HBA connected to a Fibre Channel hub?
A. H_Port
B. N_Port
C. E_Port
D. NL_Port
E. NP_Port
F. FL-Port
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 29
Which four are valid options for connecting a host to data center storage? (Choose four.)
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel


E. NFS
F. CIFS
Answer: C,D,E,F Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 30
Which two are valid block-based storage protocols? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel
E. NFS

F. CIFS
Answer: C,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
Which two are valid file-based storage protocols? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel
E. NFS

F. CIFS
Answer: E,F Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 32
Which command would you use to determine whether a Fibre Channel HBA is logged into a Cisco MDS switch?

A. MDS-A# show host login
B. MDS-A# show host data
C. MDS-A# show flogi database
D. MDS-A# show host-id
E. MDS-A# show host fcid
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 33
Which command would you use to determine which hosts were Fibre Channel targets?
A. MDS-A# show host login
B. MDS-A# show host database
C. MDS-A# show flogi database
D. MDS-A# show host-id
E. MDS-A# show fcns database
Answer: E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 34
Which is the maximum number of active zone sets on Cisco MDS 9500 Series Fibre Channel Switches?
A. 1 with all licenses
B. 2 with Standard Zoning license
C. 3 with Enhanced Zoning license
D. 4 with Enterprise Zoning license
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 35
Which configuration elements that are selected during initial setup are unique to Cisco MDS 9000 series Fibre Channel switches? (Choose two.)

A. Time and Date
B. Management IP address
C. Default Zoneset distribution
D. Enforce password complexity
E. Default switchport mode F
Answer: C,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 36
Which is a structure that provides the equivalent of physical fabric separation in Cisco MDS 9000 Series Fibre Channel Switches?
A. VLAN
B. VSAN
C. Zone

D. FLOGI
E. LUN
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
Which would you use to determine what physical ports are assigned to VSAN 10?
A. MDS-A# show vsan 10
B. MDS-A# show vsan 10 database
C. MDS-A# show vsan 10 ports
D. MDS-A# show vsan 10 membership
E. MDS-A# show fcns 10 database
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 38
Which RAID level is associated with two dedicated parity drives?

A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 4

E. RAID 5
F. RAID 6
Answer: F Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 39
Which three are benefits of server virtualization? (Choose three.)
A. better server utilization
B. increased network visibility
C. decreased complexity
D. uniform hardware presented to operating systems
E. physical resource sharing
Answer: A,D,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 40
Which three are benefits of virtual machines? (Choose three.)
A. dedicated LAN NIC
B. dedicated SAN HBA
C. resource partitioning
D. hardware abstraction
E. virtual machine isolation
Answer: C,D,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 41
Which three are required components of a Cisco Nexus 1000V deployment? (Choose three.)

A. Adapter FEX
B. Virtual Ethernet Module
C. Virtual Fibre Channel Module
D. Virtual Supervisor Module
E. License key
F. VM-Fex
Answer: B,D,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 42
Which five Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch features exceed the functionality of the VMware vNetwork Distributed Switch? (Choose five.)
A. private VLANs
B. port state migration
C. access control lists
D. port security
E. SPAN
F. ERSPAN
G. QoS marking
Answer: C,D,E,F,G Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 43
Which interface provides heartbeat messages between the VSM and VEM?
A. control
B. management
C. packet
D. backplane

E. SVI
Answer: A Explanation: QUESTION NO: 44




Which commands issued on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM push the port profile named VMdata to the VMware vCenter server?
A. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdata N1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# no shutdown
B. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdata N1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# push profile
C. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdata N1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# state enabled
D. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdata N1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# update profile
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 45
Which command issued on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM validates the connection to the VMware vCenter server?
A. N1000v-VSM# show vmware-vim
B. N1000v-VSM# show connections vmware
C. N1000v-VSM# show svs connections
D. N1000v-VSM# show vcenter status
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 46
Which command issued on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM displays the connected VEMs?
A. N1000v-VSM# show vem
B. N1000v-VSM# vem status
C. N1000v-VSM# show module
D. N1000v-VSM# show vem status
E. N1000v-VSM# show vem inventory
Answer: C Explanation:



QUESTION NO: 47
Which ports on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects can operate at either 1 Gb/s or 10 Gb/s?
A. Ports 1�C4
B. None
C. Ports 1�C6
D. Ports 1�C8
E. Ports 17�C20
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 48
Which adapters for Cisco UCS B-Series blade servers and C-Series rack servers allow configuration of virtual interfaces? (Choose four.)
A. M71-KR
B. M81-KR
C. VIC-1240
D. VIC-1280
E. P61E
F. P71E
G. P81E
Answer: B,C,D,G Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 49
Which three are the three primary methods to configure Cisco UCS B-Series systems? (Choose three.)
A. SNMP

B. XML API
C. UCS Manager GUI
D. IPMI
E. UCS Manager CLI

F. CIM-XML
Answer: B,C,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 50
Which three are the names of configuration tabs that appear in the Navigation Pane of the UCS Manager GUI? (Choose three.)
A. VLAN
B. LAN

C. VSAN
D. Policies
E. Equipment
F. Global
G. Admin
Answer: B,E,G Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 51
Which three items in Cisco Unified Computing System are subject to finite state machine validation? (Choose three.)
A. SNMP get
B. local login
C. server discovery
D. firmware downloads
E. server boot
F. backup jobs
Answer: C,D,F Explanation: QUESTION NO: 52



Which feature monitors state transitions of components and processes in Cisco Unified Computing System?
A. finite state machine
B. state monitor
C. state manager
D. discovery
E. logical state arbiter
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 53
What are the three basic states of an Ethernet interface on a Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect? (Choose three.)
A. unconfigured
B. enabled
C. disabled
D. uplink
E. server
F. errdisabled
Answer: A,D,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 54
Which three are components of the Cisco Unified Computing System 2104 I/O Module? (Choose three.)
A. multiplexer
B. chassis management console
C. chassis management switch
D. finite state machine
E. chassis management controller
Answer: A,C,E Explanation:



QUESTION NO: 55
Which two modes of setup are offered on the initial setup script on a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect? (Choose two.)
A. Restore
B. Setup
C. Console
D. Serial
E. Management 0
Answer: A,B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 56
Which requirement is unique to service profile templates?
A. VLAN
B. VSAN
C. pooled identities
D. vNIC
E. vHBA
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 57
Which component of Cisco UCS B-Series is also referred to as a FEX?
A. UCS 5108

B. UCS 2104XP
C. UCS 6248UP
D. UCS 6120
E. UCS MK72-KR

Answer: B Explanation:


QUESTION NO: 58
Which statement is true regarding Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster configuration?
A. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to two peers for redundancy.
B. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to three peers for redundancy.
C. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to four peers for redundancy.
D. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to six peers for redundancy.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 59
On which layer of the tiered data center architecture do service modules such as FWSM, ACE, and WAAS typically appear?
A. access
B. services
C. aggregation
D. transport
E. network
F. core
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 60
What is the principle function of the data center core layer?

A. repeater
B. high-speed packet switching
C. access control
D. firewalling and intrusion prevention
E. services layer
F. QoS marking
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 61
Which is a function of the data center access layer?
A. repeater
B. high-speed packet switching
C. access control
D. firewalling and Intrusion Prevention
E. services layer
F. QoS marking
Answer: F Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 62
Which vPC connection creates the illusion of a single control plane?
A. vPC overlay link
B. vPC peer link
C. vPC keepalive link
D. vPC control link
E. vPC management link
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 63

Where does the data plane operate on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch?
A. unified crossbar fabric
B. unified port controller
C. supervisor module
D. Policy Feature Card
E. Connectivity Management Processor
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 64
Which port type pair is used to connect FCoE switches in multihop FCoE?
A. N to F
B. VF to VN
C. VE to VE
D. TE to TE
E. NL to NF
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 65
What is the purpose of the Destination VIF field in the VNTag header?
A. identify the physical satellite port on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extender
B. identify the virtual satellite port on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extender
C. identify the physical satellite port on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch
D. identify the fabric port on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extender
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 66

Which is the complementary endpoint to a SCSI target?
A. source
B. origin
C. host endpoint
D. initiator
E. successor
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 67
Which is the correct command to install a feature license on Cisco MDS 9100 Series Fibre Channel Switches?
A. MDS-A# install license bootflash:license_file.lic
B. MDS-A# copy license bootflash:license_file.lic running-config
C. MDS-A# install feature bootflash:license_file.lic
D. MDS-A# copy feature bootflash:license_file.lic running-config
E. MDS-A# update license pool bootflash:license_file.lic
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 68
Which is the correct port mapping for a Fibre Channel HBA connected to a Cisco MDS Fibre Channel switch?
A. H_Port to N_Port
B. N_Port to S_Port
C. H_Port to S_Port
D. N_Port to F_Port
E. H_Port to F_Port
Answer: D Explanation: QUESTION NO: 69



Which is employed by Cisco Nexus 7000 switching products to create multiple logical switches?
A. VLAN
B. VTP
C. VRF
D. VDC
E. vPC
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 70
Which method of virtualization requires significant modification to the guest operating system?
A. full virtualization
B. paravirtualization
C. partial virtualization
D. hypervisor virtualization
E. host virtualization
F. storage virtualization
G. LAN virtualization
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 71
Which is the default Predictor in the Cisco ACE 4710 Appliance?
A. least loaded
B. round robin
C. hash cookie
D. least bandwidth
E. least connections
Answer: B Explanation: QUESTION NO: 72



What is the maximum number of Cisco ACE GSS 4400 Series Appliances that can be part of a high-availability mesh?
A. 16
B. 8
C. 4
D. 3
E. 12
F. 14
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 73
When the typical TCP congestion avoidance process is engaged due to congestion, by what percentage is the congestion window reduced?
A. 12%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
E. 100% (send zero window)
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 74 HOTSPOT





Answer:




Explanation:
Yes, the OTV license is installed on Nexus-7010-PRO-A switch From a licensing perspective, OTV support requires the use of the new Transport Services (TRS) license which we can see is installed.
QUESTION NO: 75 HOTSPOT





Answer:


Explanation:
The overlay interface is a logical interface that connects to the remote edge devices on the overlay network through an associated physical interface on the transport network.
The overlay network consists of one or more logical overlay interfaces that are created on the edge device in each remote site that connects to the physical transport network.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nx-os/OTV/config_guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_Series_NX-OS_OTV_Configuration_Guide_chapter_011.html#task_4CD4BC7B5C2140A1BD9619876E5A05 91
QUESTION NO: 76 HOTSPOT





Answer:


Explanation:
the "show otv route" command verifies that MAC addresses are being discovered across the OTV cloud.
QUESTION NO: 77 HOTSPOT





Answer:

Explanation: TRANSPORT_SERVICES_PKG


QUESTION NO: 78 HOTSPOT





Answer:

Explanation:
Use the "show vpc" command to see that the domain ID is 1.

QUESTION NO: 79 HOTSPOT





Answer:


Explanation:
2338768 seconds Use the "show vpc peer-keepalives" command to show vpc see the peer has been alive for 2338768 seconds.
QUESTION NO: 80 HOTSPOT






Answer:


Explanation:
N7K-PROD-A has vPC role primary and N7K-PROD-B has vPC role secondary.

Use the "show vpc role" command on each switch to verify.
QUESTION NO: 81 HOTSPOT






Answer:


Explanation:
00:23:04:ee:be:01 Use the "show vpc role" command to see the system-mac address.



QUESTION NO: 82
In a large enterprise, which two SAN switches are ideal core switches for providing high availability? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5548
B. Cisco MDS 9710
C. Cisco MDS 9509
D. Cisco Nexus 7028
E. Cisco MDS 9222i
Answer: B,C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 83
Which three options are characteristics of a data center access layer switch? (Choose three.)
A. host connectivity
B. firewall connectivity
C. QoS marking
D. spanning-tree edge ports
E. high-speed packet switching
Answer: A,C,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 84
In a three-tiered data center network design, where does the Layer 2 / Layer 3 boundary typically reside?

A. core layer
B. aggregation layer
C. access layer
D. services layer
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 85
Which two methods to configure LACP port channels are valid? (Choose two.)
A. channel-group 10 mode active
B. port-channel 10 mode active
C. channel-group 10 mode on
D. channel-group 10 mode passive
E. channel-group 10 mode lacp
Answer: A,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 86
Which two switches does Cisco recommend for small and medium-sized organizations to provide a cost-effective solution for the Fibre Channel SAN edge? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco MDS 9250i
B. Cisco MDS 9506
C. Cisco MDS 9148
D. Cisco MDS 9509
Answer: A,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 87
Which two switches provide high-performance, multiprotocol, and multiple services for the Fibre Channel SAN core in the data center? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco MDS 9124
B. Cisco MDS 9506
C. Cisco MDS 9222i
D. Cisco MDS 9710
Answer: B,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 88
Which four components are parts of the Cisco Data Center Nexus switching offering? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco 6000 Series Switch
B. Cisco ASR 9000
C. Cisco 1000v Switch
D. Cisco IOS Software
E. Cisco 4500E Switch
F. Cisco NX-OS Software
G. Cisco 6509-E Switch
H. Cisco Fabric Extender
Answer: A,C,F,H Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 89
On the Cisco Nexus 5000, which three commands help verify network connectivity? (Choose three.)
A. ping
B. show interface brief
C. show otv
D. show vdc membership
E. traceroute
Answer: A,B,E Explanation: QUESTION NO: 90



Which three items are needed to perform the initial setup for a Cisco Data Center device? (Choose three.)
A. IP address and network mask
B. FTP password
C. Active Directory password
D. console cable
E. device software licenses
F. admin password to assign to the device
G. SFP+ cables
Answer: A,D,F Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 91
Which settings are used to access the console port on the Cisco Nexus?
A. 9600, 8 data bits, 1 stop bit, No parity
B. 19200, 8 data bits, 1 stop bit, No parity
C. 9600, 8 data bits, 0 stop bit, No parity
D. 9600, 8 data bits, 1 stop bit, Parity
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 92
Which three items are control plane protocols? (Choose three.)
A. OSPF
B. UDLD
C. CoPP

D. IS-IS
E. NAT
Answer: A,B,D Explanation: QUESTION NO: 93




Which SAN port type allows multihop FCoE between two SAN switches?
A. VN
B. VE
C. VF
D. E
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 94
For which two reasons should customers deploy FCoE beyond the access layer? (Choose two.)
A. higher throughput compared to traditional Fibre Channel
B. better security than traditional Fibre Channel
C. device consolidation
D. FCoE cannot be deployed beyond the access layer.
Answer: A,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 95
Which option describes what VNTags are used for?
A. to separate broadcast domains
B. to identify and separate virtual interfaces
C. to prioritize FCoE traffic
D. to extend a Layer 2 domain across a Layer 3 boundary
Answer: B Explanation: QUESTION NO: 96



Which option describes the function of a Cisco Nexus 2000?
A. positioned for access layer switching
B. to expand the port density of a parent switch
C. to provide edge routing
D. to host virtual appliances
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 97
Refer to the exhibit.

After you install and configure a Cisco Nexus 5548, you notice that you cannot ping its default gateway. Assume that your management interface is up and running, and other devices in the same subnet or VLAN can communicate with the default gateway.

Which statement describes the problem?
A. The subnet of the management port is incorrect.
B. The default route is configured incorrectly.
C. You are using the incorrect cable.
D. You must ping from the management VRF.
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 98
Which three components are needed to implement FCoE? (Choose three.)
A. FCoE Initialization Protocol
B. N_Port virtualization
C. N_Port ID virtualization
D. converged network adapter
E. priority flow control
Answer: A,D,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 99
Which three devices support FCoE? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5500
B. Cisco Nexus 7000
C. Cisco Nexus 3000
D. Cisco Nexus 1000V
E. Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect
Answer: A,B,E Explanation: